CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS


Cambridge IELTS 8 is the latest IELTS exam preparation.https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 8 reading test 2 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: SHEET GLASS MANUFACTURE: THE FLOAT PROCESS

QUESTIONS 1-8: COMPLETE THE TABLE AND DIAGRAM BELOW.

1.  SPINNING

The question requires a method of producing flat glass. There are two methods of making flat glass.
In the first paragraph, “the first successful method for making clear, flat glass involved spinning”. In the second paragraph, “the first continuous ribbon process involved squeezing molten glass through two hot rollers, similar to an old mangle”. So the first method is spinning and the second method is the ribbon process, which is already mentioned in the table.

2.   (PERFECTLY) UNBLEMISHED

In paragraph 1, “This method [spinning] was very effective as the glass had not touched any surfaces between being soft and becoming hard, so it stayed perfectly unblemished”. The writer mentions the advantage of spinning as it makes the glass remain perfectly unblemished.
–     advantage=be effective
–     stayed = remained

3.   LABOUR/LABOR – INTENSIVE

The  two  disadvantages  of  spinning  methods  were  mentioned  in  the  last  sentence  of  paragraph  1:
“However, the process took a long time and was labor intensive” . “However”  means  something  which  is  negative.  As  the  sentences  above  indicate  the  advantage  of the spinning process, the transition word “however” implies the disadvantage of this method.
–     took a long time = slow

4.   THICKNESS

The  advantages  of  the  ribbon  process  were  mentioned  in  paragraph  2,  “This  allowed  glass  of virtually any thickness to be made non-stop” => two advantages were: it could produce glass sheets of varying thickness and it was a non-stop process.
–  virtually any = almost any = varying

5.   MARKED

In  paragraph  2,  all  the  information  about  the  drawbacks/  disadvantages  of  the  ribbon  method  was that “but the rollers would leave both sides of the glass  marked, and these would then need to be ground and polished.   This part of the process rubbed away around 20 per cent of the glass, and the machines were very expensive”. The rollers left both sides of glass marked so that it was not unblemished any more and therefore it needed to be polished  => this was the disadvantage of the ribbon method.
–  rubbed away: the action of the machine, in particular the rollers, removed about 20% of the surface of the glass

6.   (MOLTEN) GLASS & 7. (MOLTEN) TIN/METAL

In paragraph 3, “in 1952, he [Pilkington] had the idea of using a bed of molten metal to form the flat glass,  eliminating  altogether  the  need  for  rollers  within  the  float  bath…but  could  not  boil  at  a temperature below the temperature of the molten glass (about 1500 degree)”.   Pilkington used molten metal as material to form flat glass. Because the metal must be melted at a temperature  less  than  the  hardening  point  of  glass  and  could  not  boil  at  a  temperature  below  the temperature of the molten glass => tin was the most suitable metal. Therefore, in the answer number 7 you can write tin or metal.

8.   ROLLERS

In paragraph 3, “…eliminating altogether the need for rollers within the float bath” . This means that the float process did not need the rollers within the float bath. In the picture you can
– see two small wheels are outside the float bath => these are rollers.
– eliminate: to remove or get rid of something/somebody

QUESTIONS 9-13: DO THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS AGREE WITH THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN READING PASSAGE 1?

9. THE METAL USED IN THE FLOAT PROCESS HAD TO HAVE SPECIFIC PROPERTIES

Key words: metal, float process, specific properties
In paragraph 3, the  requirement for the metal is  that   “The metal  had to  melt  at  a temperature less than the hardening point of glass (about 600 degrees), but could not boil at a temperature below the temperature of the molten glass (about 1500 degrees). The best metal for the job was tin”. There were specific requirements/properties for the metal used in the floating process: melting at the temperature  less  than  the  hardening  point  of  glass,  not  boiling  below  the  temperature  of  the molten glass.
=>  ANSWER: TRUE

10. PILKINGTON INVESTED SOME OF HIS OWN MONEY IN HIS FLOAT PLANT

Key words: Pilkington, invested, own money, float plant
In paragraph 5, the writer only indicates that “Pilkington built a pilot plant in 1953 and by 1955 he had  convinced  his  company  to  build  a  full-scale  plant”.  The  writer  does  not  mention  whether Pilkington  used/invested  his  own  money to  build  this  float  plant  or  not  =>  The  information  is  not given.
=>   ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

11. PILKINGTON’S FIRST FULL-SCALE PLANT WAS AN INSTANT COMMERCIAL SUCCESS.

Key words: Pilkington‟s first full-scale plant, commercial success
Paragraph 5, “However, it took 14 months of non-stop production, costing the company £100,000 a  month,  before  the  plant  produced  any  usable  glass.  Furthermore,  once  they  succeeded  in making  marketable  flat  glass,  the  machine  was  turned  off  for  a  service  to  prepare  it  for  years  of continuous production. When it started up again it took another four months get the process right again”.
–  That means the process of making flat glass was not immediately successful (it took 14 months [a long time] of production before the plant produced usable glass).
–   It also stopped working to prepare for continuous production =  it did not work instantly
–  instant: happening immediately
– commercial success = succeed in making marketable flat glass
=>    ANSWER: FALSE

12.  THE PROCESS INVENTED BY PILKINGTON HAS NOW BEEN IMPROVED

Key words: process, invented by Pilkington, been improved.
In  paragraph  6,  “Float  plants  today  make  glass  of  near  optical  quality…It  adds  up  to  a  continuous melting process…” Several processes – melting, refining, homogenizing were used in this process of delivering glass smoothly and continuously to the float bath => these were the recent improvements in the process invented by Pilkington.
–   today = now
=>   ANSWER: TRUE

13. COMPUTERS ARE BETTER THAN HUMANS AT DETECTING FAULTS IN GLASS

Key words: computers, better than humans, detecting faults
The last sentences in paragraph 7 explain that “Inspection technology allows more than 100 million measurements a second  to  be made across the  ribbon,  locating flaws the unaided  eye would be unable to see”.  inspection  technology  ~  a  computer  can  make  more  than  100  million  measurements  a  second   as well as locating flaws which a normal person is unable to do => computers are better than humans
– detecting = locating
–  faults = flaws
-humans ~ unaided eye

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 – TEST 2 – PASSAGE 1 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 2: THE LITTLE ICE AGE

QUESTIONS 14 – 17 CHOOSE THE CORRECT HEADING FOR PARAGRAPHS

14. PARAGRAPH B

In  paragraph  B,  “The  climate  events  of  the  Little  Ice  Age  did  more  than  help  shape  the  modern world. They are the deeply important context for the current unprecedented global warming”. This means that the Little Ice Age is the background to/ relates to the current unprecedented global warming. The Little Ice Age has had an effect on today‟s world.
–  today = current
=>   ANSWER: ii – the relevance of the Little Ice Age today

15. PARAGRAPH D

The  first  sentence  in  paragraph  D  is:  “This  book  is  a  narrative  history of  climate  shifts  during  the past  ten  centuries.  This  paragraph  refers  to  information  about  a  book  ~  a  study  which  considers evidence during the last ten centuries = a thousand years.
–     a century = 100 years
=>   ANSWER: vii – A study covering a thousand years

16. PARAGRAPH E

The  last  sentence  in  paragraph  E  states:  “The  increased  productivity  from  farmland  made  some countries self-sufficient in grain and livestock and offered effective protection against famine”. This means  that  thanks  to  the  productivity  from  farmland,  some  countries  have  enough  food  against famine
–     self -sufficient = enough to survive from their own resources
–     grain and livestock = food
–     livestock: the animals kept on a farm, for example cows or sheep
–   ANSWER: ix – Enough food at last

17. PARAGRAPH F

In  paragraph  F,  a  vast  migration  from  Europe  by  land-hungry  farmers  and  others  resulted  in  the spread  of  European  intensive  farming  methods  to  other  countries.   This  caused  an  unprecedented land  clearance,  releasing  vast  quantities  of  carbon  dioxide  into  the  atmosphere  “triggering  for  the first  time  humanly  caused  global  warming”.  =>  This  means  that  humans  had  an  impact  on  the climate.
=>  ANSWER: ix – Human impact on the climate

QUESTIONS 18-22: COMPLETE THE SUMMARY USING THE LIST OF WORDS, A-I, BELOW.

18. & 19. ICE CORES AND TREE RINGS [IN ANY ORDER]

In paragraph C, the writer explains that systematic weather observations only began a few centuries ago  (even  more  recently  in  India  and  Tropical  Africa).    So,  before  records  began,  we  have  only “proxy  records”  reconstructed  largely  from  tree  rings  and  ice  cores,  supplemented  by  a  few incomplete written accounts”. This means that before records began, there was only the „proxy record‟ reconstructed largely from tree rings and ice cores, and also from the written accounts which are limited.
–     documentation = written accounts
–     limited = incomplete
=>   ANSWER: ice cores & tree rings

20. CLIMATE SHIFTS

In paragraph B, “The Little Ice Age was far from a deep freeze, however; rather an irregular seesaw of  rapid  climate  shifts”.  This  means  that  the  Little  Ice  Age  was  not  a  time  of  only  freezing temperatures but shifts/rapid changes in climate.
–  deep freeze = consistent freezing
– consistent: always behaving in the same way, or having the same opinions, standards, etc
– shifts = changes = seesaw
=>   ANSWER: climate shifts

21. STORMS

In  paragraph  B,  “The  seesaw  brought  cycles  of  intensely  cold  winters  and  easterly  winds,  then switched  abruptly  to  years  of  heavy  spring  and  early  summer  rains,  mild  winters,  and  frequent Atlantic storms” => This means that the „seesaw‟ or movements of climate between two extremes, brought some periods of very cold winters, storms and heavy rain.
– intensely = very
=>    ANSWER: storms

22. HEAT WAVES

In paragraph B the writer refers to:   “periods of  droughts, light northeasterly winds, and summer heat  waves”   This  „seesaw‟  of  changes  in  climate  also  brought  heat  waves=periods  of  very  high temperatures, and drought [long periods with no rain].

QUESTIONS 23 – 26 CLASSIFY EVENTS

23. MANY EUROPEANS STARTED FARMING ABROAD.

Key words: Europeans, farming abroad.
In paragraph F, the writer explains that in the beginning of the  Modern Warm Period, there were many European  land-hungry  farmers  and  others  migrating  to  other  countries  like  North  America, Australia or New Zealand to farm => This means that they moved to other countries to start farming
= they started farming abroad.
=>   ANSWER: C – Modern Warm Period

24. THE CUTTING DOWN OF TREES BEGAN TO AFFECT THE CLIMATE.

Key words: cutting down of trees, affect, climate
In paragraph F, also in the Modern Warm Period:   “Millions of hectares of forest and woodland fell before the newcomers axes…triggering for the first time humanly caused global warming”.
=>  ANSWER: C – Modern Warm Period

25. EUROPEANS DISCOVERED OTHER LANDS

Key words: Europeans, discovered, lands
In paragraph D, in the Medieval Warm Period, “During these three centuries, Norse voyagers from Northern Europe explored seas, settled Greenland and visited North America”. This means that, during the time of the Medieval Warm Period, Europeans discovered other lands like Greenland and North America.
–     discovered = explored
=> ANSWER: A – Medieval Warm Period

26. CHANGES TOOK PLACE IN FISHING PATTERNS

Key words: Changes, fishing patterns
In  paragraph  E,  during  the  Little  Ice  Age,  “Dried  cod  and  herring  were  already  staples  of  the European fish trade, but changes in water temperature forced fishing fleets to work further offshore. The Basques, Dutch and English developed the first offshore fishing boats…”  Dried cod and herring are two kinds of fish; the changes in water temperature made people have to go further offshore to catch fish, so that is a change in fishing patterns.
– fishing fleets: a group of ships fishing together
=>    ANSWER: B – Little Ice Age

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 – TEST 2 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 3: THE MEANING AND POWER OF SMELL

QUESTIONS 27 – 32 CHOOSING THE CORRECT HEADING FOR EACH PARAGRAPH

27. PARAGRAPH A

In  paragraph  A,  “It  became  apparent  that  smell  can  evoke  strong  emotional  responses”.     For example, “a scent associated with a good experience can bring a rush of joy, while a foul odour or one  associated  with  a  bad  memory  may  make  us  grimace  with  disgust”.   In  the  last  sentence,  the writer  confirms  that  “The  perception  of  smell,  therefore,  consists  not  only  of  the  sensation  of  the odours themselves, but of the experiences and emotions associated with them”. This means that there is a relationship between smell and feelings. The experience relating to a smell can affect the feeling of one person towards it.
– associated with = relationship
– feelings = emotional responses
=.  ANSWER: viii – the relationship between smell and feelings

28. PARAGRAPH B

The first sentence in Paragraph B, “Odours are also essential cues in social bonding. One respondent to  the  survey  believed  that  there  is  no  true  emotional  bonding  without  touching  and  smelling  a loved one”. That means it is necessary to touch and smell to have true emotional bonding => smell is very important in personal relationships.
– bonding = the process of forming a special relationship with somebody or with a group of people = relationship
=>  ANSWER: ii – The role of smell in personal relationships

29. PARAGRAPH C

In paragraph C, “In spite of its importance to our emotional and sensory lives, smell is probably the most undervalued sense in many cultures….the human sense is feeble and undeveloped”.  This means that the importance of the human sense of smell is underestimated and not appreciated, especially in comparison with its importance among animals.
– not appreciated = undervalued
=> ANSWER: vi – Why our sense of smell is not appreciated

30. PARAGRAPH D

In paragraph D,  “Odours, unlike colors, for instance, cannot  be named in  many languages because the specific vocabulary simply does not exist. „It smells like…‟ we have to say when describing an odour , struggling to express our olfactory experience”. That means it is difficult for  people to talk about smells because of the lack of specific vocabulary in their languages.
–  difficulties of talking about= struggling to express
– smells = olfactory=connected with the sense of smell
=> ANSWER: i – The difficulties of talking about smells

31.  PARAGRAPH E

In paragraph E, the writer states that “Significant advances have been made in the understanding of the  biological  and  chemical  nature  of  olfaction,  but  many  fundamental  questions  have  yet  to  be answered”. This means that though there have been many developments in research about olfaction, there are still questions to answer => more research is needed in order to provide answers. In  the  last  sentence,  the  writer  again  confirms  that:  “Questions  like  these  mean  that  interest  in  the psychology  of  smell  is  inevitably  set  to  play  an  increasingly  important  role  for  researchers”. Therefore, it is necessary in the future to have further studies into smell.
=> ANSWER: iii – Future studies into smell

32. PARAGRAPH F

In  paragraph  F  the  writer  makes  connections   between  smells  and  cultures:  “Importantly,  our commonly held feelings about smells can help distinguish us from other cultures”. This means that smell can be used to define one people/culture from others.
– define=distinguish
– groups=other cultures
=>  ANSWER: v – The interpretation of smells as a factor in defining groups

QUESTIONS 33 – 36: CHOOSE THE CORRECT LETTER, A, B, C OR D.

33. ACCORDING TO THE INTRODUCTION, WE BECOME AWARE OF THE IMPORTANCE OF SMELL WHEN

In the introduction paragraph the writer argues that most of the time, we are surrounded by smells, but  we  are  not  “…consciously  aware  of  their  importance  to  us.    It  is  only  when  the  faculty  is impaired for some reason that we begin to realize the essential role the sense of smell plays in our sense   of   well-being”.   This   means   that   people   are   only   aware   of/   pay   attention   to   the important/essential role of smell when their ability to smell is damaged.
– become aware of = realize
– impaired = damaged
=> ANSWER: C – our ability to smell is damaged

34. THE EXPERIMENT DESCRIBED IN PARAGRAPH B

The experiment  conducted in  paragraph  B is  described by the writer in  these words: “In  one well- known  test,  women  and  men  were  able  to  distinguish  by  smell  alone  clothing    worn  by  their marriage  partners  ….as  the  experiment  revealed,  even  when  not  consciously  considered,  smells
– register=> we make use of smell without realizing it.
– experiment=test
– without realizing it=even when not consciously considered
=> ANSWER: A – shows how we make use of smell without realizing it.

35. WHAT IS THE WRITER DOING IN PARAGRAPH C?

In paragraph C, the writer explains that though the human sense of smell is considered to be feeble and undeveloped, our noses are able to recognize thousands of smells, and to perceive odours which are present only in extremely small quantities.
=>ANSWER: C – rejecting a common belief

36. WHAT DOES THE WRITER SUGGEST ABOUT THE STUDY OF SMELL IN THE ATMOSPHERE IN PARAGRAPH E?

In paragraph E, the writer says that “Researchers have still to decide whether smell is one sense or two – one responding to odours proper and the other registering odourless chemicals in the air”. in the atmosphere=in the air
=> ANSWER: D – Smell is yet to be defined

QUESTIONS 37-40: COMPLETE THE SENTENCES BELOW.

37. TESTS HAVE SHOWN THAT ODOURS CAN HELP PEOPLE RECOGNIZE THE…..BELONGING TO THEIR HUSBANDS AND WIVES.

Key words:  tests, odours, recognize, husbands and wives.
In paragraph B, “In one well-known test, women and men were able to distinguish by smell alone clothing worn by their marriage partners from similar clothing worn by other people”.This  means that the special smell  in clothing worn by husbands or wives  can be used to  recognize their marriage partners.
– odours = smell
– recognize = distinguish
– their husbands and wives = their marriage partners
=> ANSWER: Clothing

38. CERTAIN LINGUISTIC GROUPS MAY HAVE DIFFICULTY DESCRIBING SMELL BECAUSE THEY LACK THE APPROPRIATE….

Key words: linguistic groups, difficulty, describing smell, lack
In paragraph D,  “Odours, unlike colors, for instance, cannot  be named in  many languages because the specific vocabulary simply does not exist. „It smells like…‟ we have to say when describing an odour , struggling to express our olfactory experience”. This means that it is difficult for people to talk about smells because of the lack of specific vocabulary in their languages.
– linguistic groups = languages
– lack = does not exist
=>  ANSWER: Vocabulary

39. THE SENSE OF SMELL MAY INVOLVE RESPONSE TO… WHICH DO NOT SMELL, IN ADDITION TO OBVIOUS ODOURS.

Key words: sense of smell, involve, and do not smell
In  paragraph  E,  “Researchers  have  still  to  decide  whether  smell  is  one  sense  or  two   –  one responding to odours proper and the other registering odourless chemicals in the air”, so chemicals are things which sometimes do not smell in the air.
– do not smell=odourless
=>  ANSWER: Chemicals

40. ODOURS REGARDED AS UNPLEASANT IN CERTAIN…. ARE NOT REGARDED AS UNPLEASANT IN OTHERS.

Key words: unpleasant, regarded as, not unpleasant in others
In paragraph F, “Odours are invested with cultural values: smells that are considered to be offensive in some cultures may be perfectly acceptable in others”. This means that in some cultures, certain smells may be acceptable but in others they are unacceptable.
– unpleasant = offensive
– regarded as=considered
– not unpleasant = acceptable

1. Spinning
2. (perfectly) unblemished
3. labour intensive
4. thickness
5. marked
6. (molten) glass
7. (molten) tin/ metal
8. rolles
9. true
10. not given
11. false
12. true
13. true
14. ii
15. vii
16. ix
17. iv
18. c
19. B
20. A
21. H
22. G
23. C
24. C
25. A
26. B
27. viii
28. ii
29. vi
30. i
31. iii
32. v
33. C
34. A
35. C
36. D
37. clothing
38. vocabulary
39. chemicals
40. cultures

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

 CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 1 ANSWERS 


Cambridge IELTS 8 is the latest IELTS exam preparation.  https://draftsbook.com/will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 8 reading test 1 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: A CHRONICLE OF TIMEKEEPING

QUESTIONS 1-4: READING PASSAGE HAS EIGHT PARAGRAPHS, A-H.

1. A DESCRIPTION OF AN EARLY TIMEKEEPING INVENTION AFFECTED BY COLD TEMPERATURES.

Keywords:early, timekeeping, cold temperatures
In  paragraph  D,  the  writer  indicates  that  “In  order  to  track  temporal  hours  during the  day,  inventors created  sundials,  which  indicate  time  by  the  length  or  direction  of  the  sun‟s  shadow.  The  sundial‟s counterpart, the water clock, was designed to measure temporal hours at night. One of the first water clocks was a basin […]. Although these devices performed satisfactorily around the Mediterranean; they could not always be depended on in the cloudy and freezing weather of northern Europe.”
–     early~one of the first
–     cold=freezing
=>ANSWER: D

2. AN EXPLANATION   OF   THE   IMPORTANCE   OF   GEOGRAPHY   IN   THE   DEVELOPMENT   OF   THE   CALENDAR   IN   FARMING COMMUNITIES.

Keywords: geography, calendar, farming communities
In  paragraph  B,  the  writer  states  that  “Before  the  invention  of  artificial  light,  the  moon  had  greater social  impact.  And,  for  those  living  near  the  equator  in  particular,  its  waxing  and  waning  was  more conspicuous  than  the  passing  of  the  seasons.  Hence,  the  calendars  that  were  developed  at  the  lower latitudes  were  influenced  more  by  the  lunar  cycle  than  by  the  solar  year.    In  more  northern  climes, however, where seasonal agriculture was practised, the solar year became more crucial.”
–  farming=agriculture
=>ANSWER: B

3.  A DESCRIPTION OF THE ORIGINS OF THE PENDULUM CLOCK

Keywords: origins, pendulum clock
In paragraph F, the writer says that “By the 16th  century, a pendulum clock  had been devised, but the pendulum swung in a large arc and thus was not very efficient.”
=>ANSWER: F

4. DETAILS OF THE SIMULTANEOUS EFFORTS OF DIFFERENT SOCIETIES TO CALCULATE TIME USING UNIFORM HOURS.

Keywords: calculate time, uniform hours
paragraph E, the writer says that   “….in  the early 14    century, a number of systems  evolved.  The schemes that divided the day into 24 equal parts varied according to the start of the count: Italian hours began at sunset, Babylonian hours at sunrise, astronomical hours at midday and „great clock‟ hours, used for some large public clocks in Germany, at midnight. Eventually these were superseded by „small clock‟, or French, hours, which split the day into two 12-hour periods commencing at midnight.”  So, these efforts all occurred at around the same time (= simultaneously) in the early 14th    century, based on 24 equal parts (= uniform hours) in different countries (= different societies).
=>ANSWER: E

QUESTIONS 5-8: LOOK AT THE FOLLOWING EVENTS (QUESTIONS 5-8) AND THE LIST OF NATIONALITIES BELOW.

5. THEY DEVISED A CIVIL CALENDAR IN WHICH THE MONTHS WERE EQUAL IN LENGTH.

Keywords: a civil calendar, months, equal in length
In  paragraph  C,  the  writer  explains  that  “Centuries  before  the  Roman  Empire,  the  Egyptians  had formulated a municipal calendar having 12 months of 30 days, with five days added to approximate the solar year.”  Therefore, the Egyptians devised this calendar.
–  devised=formulated
–  civil=municipal
– he months were equal in length ~ 12 months of 30 days
=>ANSWER: B

6. THEY DIVIDED THE DAY INTO TWO EQUAL HALVES

Keywords: divided, two equal halves
In  paragraph  E,  the  writer  indicates  that  “Eventually,  these  were  superseded  by  „small  clock‟,  or French, hours, which split the day into two 12-hour periods commencing at midnight.”
– divided=split
– two equal halves ~ two 12-hour periods
=>ANSWER: F

7. THEY DEVELOPED A NEW CABINET SHAPE FOR A TYPE OF TIMEKEEPER.

Keywords: new, cabinet shape, timekeeper.
In  paragraph  G,  the  writer  says  that  in  England  in  1670,  the  invention  of  the  anchor  escapement enabled the pendulum to travel in a very small arc, which means that it moved only a short distance.   So a long pendulum which beat once every second could be used   “….and thus led to the development of a  new floor-standing case design, which became known as the grandfather clock.‟   So, this  grandfather clock, a type of timekeeper, stood on the floor, and the pendulum moved inside the tall case, shaped lack a cabinet.
=>ANSWER: D

8. THEY CREATED A CALENDAR TO ORGANIZE PUBLIC EVENTS AND WORK SCHEDULES.

Keywords: calendar, organize public events, work schedules
In  the  first  paragraph,  the  writer  says  that  “the  Babylonians  began  to  measure  time,  introducing calendars  to  co-ordinate  communal  activities,  to  plan  the  shipment  of  goods  and,  in  particular,  to regulate planting and harvesting.”
– organize public events = co-ordinate communal activities
=>ANSWER: A

QUESTIONS 9-13: LABEL THE DIAGRAM BELOW.

9-13. HOW THE 1670 LEVER-BASED DEVICE WORKED

Keywords:  1670,  lever-based device.  Thus, all the answers will be found in paragraph G.

9. ESCAPEMENT (RESEMBLING…..)

In paragraph G, the writer says that “It was called the  anchor escapement, which was a lever-based device shaped like a ship‟s anchor”
– resembling=be shaped like
=>ANSWER: (ship‟s) anchor

10. THE…..
11.THE……

In paragraph G, the writer explains that “The motion of a pendulum rocks this device (escapement) so that it catches and releases each tooth of the escape wheel.”
=>ANSWER:      10.(escape) wheel     11. tooth

12-13. A 12…..WHICH BEATS EACH 13…..

In  paragraph  G,  the  writer  says  that  “Moreover,  this  invention  allowed  the  use  of  a  long pendulum which could beat once a second and thus led to the development of a new floor-standing case design.”
=>ANSWER:      12. (long) pendulum      13. second

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 – TEST 1 – PASSAGE 1 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 2: AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL IN THE USA

QUESTION 14- 19: READING PASSAGE 2 HAS SEVEN PARAGRAPHS, A-G. 

14. PARAGRAPH A

In this paragraph, the writer indicates that “An accident that occurred in the skies over the Grand Canyon in 1956  resulted  in  the  establishment  of  the  Federal  Aviation  Administration  (FAA)  to  regulate  and oversee the operation  of  aircraft in  the skies over the United  States” So, this paragraph’s main idea is aviation disaster prompts action.
–  disaster=accident
=>ANSWER: ii

15. PARAGRAPH C

In  this  paragraph,  the  writer  argues  that  “It  was  only  after  the  creation  of  the  FAA  that  full-scale regulation  of  America‟s  airspace  took  place,  and  this  was  fortuitous,  for  the  advent  of  the  jet  engine suddenly resulted  in  a  large  number  of  very  fast  planes…”  So,  this  paragraph  is  about  two  coincidental developments.
–  coincidental= fortuitous
=>ANSWER: iii

16.  PARAGRAPH D

In  this  paragraph,  the  writer  argues  that  “Many  people  think  that  ATC  consists  of  a  row  of controllers sitting in front of their radar screens at the nation’s airports, telling arriving and departing traffic what to do. This is a very incomplete part of the picture.” So, this paragraph is about a view about ATC which is oversimplified.
=>ANSWER: v

17. PARAGRAPH E

In this paragraph, the writer writes about airspace; especially altitude zones: “In general,  from 365m above  the  ground  and  higher,  the  entire  country  is  blanketed  by  controlled  airspace.  In  certain  areas, mainly near  airports,  controlled  airspace  extends  down  to  215m above  the  ground  […]  In  this  way,  the recreational  pilot  who simply wishes to  go flying for a while  without  all  the restrictions  composed by  the FAA has only to stay in uncontrolled airspace, below 365m.” So, the correct heading for this paragraph is setting altitude zones.
=>ANSWER: iv

18. PARAGRAPH F

In this paragraph, the writer writes about weather condition rules for safety: “In good  meteorological conditions, flying would be permitted under Visual Flight Rules (VFR), which suggests a strong reliance on visual cues to maintain an acceptable level of safety. Poor visibility necessitated a set of Instrumental Flight Rules (IFR)…” So, the correct heading for this paragraph is setting rules to weather conditions.
– weather conditions=meteorological conditions
=>ANSWER: viii

19. PARAGRAPH G

The main idea of this paragraph lies in the first sentence “Controlled airspace is divided into several types, designated by letters of the alphabet.” Then, the writer details how controlled airspace is divided into categories and defines them. So, the correct heading for this paragraph is defining airspace categories.
–  categories=types
=>ANSWER: vii

QUESTION 20-26: DO THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS AGREES WITH THE GIVEN INFORMATION OF THE READING PASSAGE?

20. THE FAA WAS CREATED AS A RESULT OF THE INTRODUCTION OF THE JET ENGINE.

Keywords: FAA, created, jet engine
In  paragraph  C,  the  writer  argues  that  “It  was  only  after  the  creation  of  the  FAA  that  full-scale regulation  of  America‟s  airspace  took  place,  and  this  was  fortuitous,  for  the  advent  of  the  jet  engine suddenly resulted in a large number of very fast planes…” This means that the jet engine was created after the formation of the FAA.
=>ANSWER: FALSE

21. AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL STARTED AFTER THE GRAND CANYON CRASH IN 1956

Keywords: after Grand Canyon crash, 1956
In  the  second  paragraph,  the  writer  states  that  “Rudimentary  air  traffic  control  (ATC)  existed  well before the Grand Canyon disaster.”
=>ANSWER: FALSE

22. BEACONS AND FLASHING LIGHTS ARE STILL USED BY ATC TODAY.

Keywords: beacons, flashing lights, used, today
In this passage, the writer does not mention whether beacons and flashing lights are still used by ATC today. Beacons and flashing lights are referred to in paragraph B, but we are not told if this system has been abandoned completely or is still used.  So, the statement is not given.
=>ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

23.  SOME IMPROVEMENTS WERE MADE IN RADIO COMMUNICATION DURING WORLD WAR II

Key words: improvements, radio communication, World War II
In paragraph C, the writer explains that “In the 1940s, ATC centres could and did take advantage of the  newly  developed  radar  and  improved  radio  communication brought  about  by  the  Second  World War.” =>ANSWER: TRUE

24. CLASS F AIRSPACE IS AIRSPACE WHICH IS BELOW 365M AND NOT NEAR AIRPORTS.

Keywords: Class F, below 365m, not near airports
In the last paragraph, the writer says that “Uncontrolled airspace is designated Class F.”In paragraph E, the writer argues that “Elsewhere, in uncontrolled airspace, pilots are bound by fewer regulations. In this way,  the  recreational  pilot  who  simply  wishes  to  go  flying  for  a  while  without  all  the  restrictions composed by the FAA has only to stay in uncontrolled airspace, below 365m.
=>ANSWER: TRUE

25. ALL AIRCRAFT IN CLASS E AIRSPACE MUST USE IFR

Keywords: All, Class E, must use IFR
In the last paragraph, the writer says that “The difference between Class E and A airspace is that in Class A, all operations are IFR…” This means that not all aircraft in Class E airspace must use IFR.
=>ANSWER: FALSE

26. A PILOT ENTERING CLASS C AIRSPACE IS FLYING OVER AN AVERAGE-SIZED CITY.

Keywords: Class C, an average-sized city
In the last paragraph, the writer states that “Three other types of airspace, Classes D, C and B, govern the  vicinity  of  airports.  These  correspond  roughly  to  small  municipal,  medium-sized  metropolitan  and major   metropolitan   airports   respectively.”   This   means   that   Class   C   corresponds   to   medium-sized metropolitan airports. So, the statement is true.
–  city=metropolitan
– average-sized=medium-sized
=>ANSWER: TRUE

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 – TEST 1 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 3: TELEPATHY

QUESTIONS 27-30: COMPLETE EACH SENTENCE WITH THE CORRECT ENDING, A-G, BELOW.

27. RESEARCHERS WITH DIFFERING ATTITUDES TOWARDS TELEPATHY AGREE ON

Keywords: differing attitudes, telepathy, agree
In paragraph 2, the writer states that  “Some researchers say the results constitute compelling evidence that telepathy is genuine. Other parapsychologists believe the field is on the brink of collapse, having tried to  produce  definitive  scientific  proof  and  failed.  Sceptics  and  advocates  alike  do  concur  on  one  issue, however: that the most impressive evidence so far has come from the so-called “ganzfeld experiments”, a German term that means “whole field””.
–  Researchers with differing attitudes= Sceptics and advocates
–  agree on=concur on
=>ANSWER: E (the significance of the ganzfeld experiments)

28. REPORTS OF EXPERIENCES DURING MEDITATION INDICATED

Keywords: reports, meditation, indicated
In  paragraph  2,  the  writer  argues  that    “Reports  of  telepathic  experiences  had  by  people  during meditation led parapsychologists to suspect that telepathy might  involve „signals‟ passing between people that  were  so  faint  that  they  were  usually  swamped  by  normal  brain  activity.  In  this  case,  such  signals might  be  more  easily  detected  by those  experiencing  meditation-like  tranquility  in  a  relaxing  „whole- field‟ of  light, sound  and  warmth.”   This  means that a suitable environment  (a relaxing „whole-field‟ of light, sound and warmth)  should be created so that such signals could be easily detected.
=>ANSWER: B (the need to create a suitable environment for telepathy)

29. ATTITUDES TO PARAPSYCHOLOGY WOULD ALTER DRASTICALLY WITH

Keywords: attitudes, alter, with
In  paragraph  7,  the  writer  says  that  “What  they are  certainly not  finding,  however,  is  any change  in attitude of mainstream scientists: most still today reject the very idea of telepathy. The problem stems at least  in  part  from  the  lack  of  any  plausible  mechanism  for  telepathy.”   This  means  that  if  there  is  a plausible mechanism for telepathy, attitudes to parapsychology would alter drastically.
– alter=change
=>ANSWER: A (the discovery of a mechanism for telepathy)

30.  RECENT AUTOGANZFELD TRIALS SUGGEST THAT SUCCESS RATES WILL IMPROVE WITH

Keywords: autoganzfeld, success rate, improve
In the last paragraph, the writer indicates that “Some work has begun already, with researchers trying to identify people who are particularly successful in autoganzfeld trials. Early results show that creative and artistic people do much better than average: in one study at the University of Edinburgh, musicians achieved  a  hit-rate  of  56  per  cent.”    This  means  that  success  rates  will  improve  with  a  more  careful selection of subjects.
– success rate=hit-rate
=>ANSWER: F (a more careful selection of subjects)

QUESTIONS 31-40: COMPLETE THE TABLE BELOW.

31-32-33.   INVOLVED A PERSON ACTING AS A 31….., WHO PICKED OUT ONE 32…..FROM A RANDOM SELECTION OF FOUR, AND A 33….., WHO THEN TRIED TO IDENTIFY IT.

Keywords: Ganzfeld studies 1982
In  paragraph  3,  the  writer  explains  that  “In  early  ganzfeld  experiments,  the  telepathy  test  involved  identification  of  a picture  chosen  from  a random selection  of  four  taken from  a large image bank. The idea  was  that  a  person  acting  as  a “sender”  would  attempt  to  beam  the  image  over  to  the “receiver”relaxing in the sealed room.”
–     picked out=chose
=>ANSWER:      31. sender    32. picture     33. receiver

34-35. POSITIVE RESULTS COULD BE PRODUCED BY FACTORS SUCH AS 34….. OR 35…..

Keywords: positive results, factors
In paragraph 4, the writer says that “there were  many other ways of getting positive results. These ranged  from  „sensory  leakage‟  –  where  clues  about  the  pictures  accidentally  reach  the  receiver  –  to outright fraud.”
=>ANSWER:      34. sensory leakage   35. outright fraud

36-37. 36…..WERE USED FOR KEY TASKS TO LIMIT THE AMOUNT OF 37…..IN CARRYING OUT THE TESTS

Keywords: Autoganzfeld studies 1987, key tasks
In paragraph 5, the writer indicates that “After this, many researchers switched to autoganzfeld tests – an  automated  variant  of  the  technique  which  used  computers  to  perform  many of  the  key  tasks  such  as random  selection  of  images.  By  minimising  human  involvement,  the  idea  was  to  minimise  the  risk  of flawed results.”
– limit=minimise
=>ANSWER:      36. computers  37. human involvement

38. THE RESULTS WERE THEN SUBJECTED TO A…..

Keywords: results, subjected to
In  paragraph  5,  the  writer  says  that  “In  1987,  results  from  hundreds  of  autoganzfeld  tests  were  studied by Honorton in a „meta-analysis‟, a statistical technique for finding the overall results from a set of studies.”
=>ANSWER: meta-analysis

39-40. 39…..BETWEEN DIFFERENT TEST RESULTS WAS PUT DOWN TO THE FACT THAT SAMPLE GROUPS WERE NOT  40….. (AS WITH MOST GANZFELD STUDIES)

Keywords: flaw, test results, sample groups
In paragraph 6, the writer explains that “Yet some parapsychologists remain disturbed by the lack of consistency   between   individual   ganzfeld   tests.   Defenders   of   telepathy   point   out   that   demanding impressive  evidence  from  every  study  ignores  one  basic  statistical  fact:  it  takes  large  samples  to  detect small  effects.  If,  as  current  results  suggest,  telepathy produces  hit-rates  only marginally  above  the  25  per cent  expected  by chance,  it‟s  unlikely  to  be  detected  by  a  typical  ganzfeld  study  involving  around  40 people: the group is just not big enough.”
=>ANSWER:      39. lack of consistency   40. big enough

1. D
2. B
3. F
4. E
5. B
6. F
7. D
8. A
9. (ships’s) anchor
10. (escape) wheel
11. tooth
12. (long) pendulum
13. second
14. ii
15. iii
16. v
17. iv
18. viii
19. vii
20. false
21. false
22. not given
23. true
24. true
25. false
26. true
27. E
28. B
29. A
30. F
31. sender
32. picture/ image
33. receiver
34. sensory leakage
35. fraud
36. computers
37. human involvement
38. meta-analysis
39. lack of consistency
40. big/ large enough

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 7 READING TEST 4 ANSWERS


Cambridge IELTS 7 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. READINGIELTS.COM will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 7 reading test 4 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: PULLING STRINGS TO BUILD PYRAMIDS

QUESTIONS 1-7 TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

1. IT IS GENERALLY BELIEVED THAT LARGE NUMBERS OF PEOPLE WERE NEEDED TO BUILD THE PYRAMIDS

Keywords: generally, large numbers, build
In the opening of paragraph 1, the writer says: ” The pyramids of Egypt were built more than three thousand years ago, and no one knows how. The conventional picture is that tens of thousands of slaves dragged stones on sledges.” This means that a huge number of peopleare generally believed to have been involved in building the pyramids.
+ Conventional picture here can be understood as the general belief/thought of many people, indicating that the fact is generally believed.
=>ANSWER:  TRUE

2. CLEMMONS FOUND A STRANGE HIEROGLYPH ON THE WALL OF AN EGYPTIAN MONUMENT.

Keywords: Clemmons, hieroglyph, wall, monument
In the first paragraph, the writer states: “While perusing a book on monuments of Egypt, she noticed a hieroglyph that showed a row of men standing in odd postures ” This means that Clemmons found a picture of the hieroglyph in a book on Egyptian monuments, but she did not find the hieroglyph actually on the wall of a monument.
=>ANSWER:     FALSE

3. GHARIB HAD PREVIOUSLY DONE EXPERIMENTS ON BIRD FLIGHT.

Keywords: Gharibs, previously, bird flight
Information on Gharib before he did the experiment on Clemmon’s theory can only be found in paragraph 2, but there is no mention that he had done experiments on bird flight.
=>ANSWER:  NOT GIVEN

4. GHARIB AND GRAFF TESTED THEIR THEORY BEFORE APPLYING IT.

Keywords: Gharib, Graff, tested, before applying
Paragraph 3 is about the preparations of Gharib and Graff for testing their theory, and in paragraph 4 we learn what happened when the theory was applied.  In paragraph 3, the writer reports that:  “Their initial calculations and scale-model wind-tunnel experiments convinced them they wouldn‟t need a strong wind to lift the 33.5tonne column”. So this means that their theory had been tested before being applied.
+ test = experiment
=>ANSWER:   TRUE

5. THE SUCCESS OF THE ACTUAL EXPERIMENT WAS DUE TO THE HIGH SPEED OF THE WIND

Keywords: actual experiment, high speed, wind
In paragraph 5, where information on the the actual result of the experiment is found, the writer says : “The wind was blowing at a gentle 16 to 20 kilometers an hour, little more than half what they thought would be needed”.This means that the wind speed needed in reality is lower than the speed they calculated before. So the success of the actual experiment is not due to the high speed of the wind.
=>ANSWER:  FALSE

6. THEY FOUND THAT, AS THE KITE FLEW HIGHER, THE WIND FORCE GOT STRONGER

Keywords: kite, higher, wind,  stronger
Information of the actual experiment can only be found in paragraph 5.  We only know that when the kite was opened, there was a huge initial force.  There is no reference to the height of the kite, nor the relation of the height to the force of the wind.
=>ANSWER:   NOT GIVEN

7. THE TEAM DECIDED THAT IT WAS POSSIBLE TO USE KITES TO RAISE VERY HEAVY STONES

Keywords : decided, possible, stones
In paragraph 5, the writer explains:  “So Clemmons was right: the pyramids builders could have used  kitesto lift massive stones into place.”
+ raise = lift = move something to a higher position
+ very heavy = massive
=>ANSWER:     TRUE

QUESTIONS 8-13:  COMPLETE THE SUMMARY BELOW (NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS )

8-10

From the title of the summary, [Additional evidence for theory of kite-lifting] it can be inferred that the information should be found in paragraph 7:  “Others feel there is more of a case for the theory. …”
+ additional evidence = more of a case = other evidence to support the theory 8-9-10.The Egyptians had…, which could lift larges pieces of …and they knew how to use the energy of the wind from their skill as …
Keywords: had, lift large pieces of, skill, as
In paragraph 7, the writer states: ” Harnessing the  wind would not have been a problem for accomplished sailors like the Egyptians. And they are known to have used wooden pulleys, which could have been made strong enough to bear the weight of massive blocks of stone”. In gap 8 and gap 9, we need 2 nouns – something that the Egyptians could use to lift larges pieces of something. The answer therefore should be wooden pulleys and stone. In gap 10, we need a noun – which possibly indicates a job , as the question mentions “skill as…” , which requires the ability to use the energy of the wind. The word that refers to a job here can only be (accomplished) sailors
+ lift = bear the weight
+ large pieces of  = massive blocks of
=>ANSWER:      8. wooden pulleys; 9. stone; 10.accomplished sailors

11-12. THE DISCOVERY ON ONE PYRAMID OF AN OBJECT WHICH RESEMBLED A…SUGGESTS THEY MAY HAVE EXPERIMENTED WITH …

Keywords : an object, resembled, suggest,experimented with
In paragraph 7, the writer says:  “A wooden artefact found on the step pyramid at Saqqara looks uncannily like a modern glider. Although  it dates from several hundred years after the building of the pyramids, its sophistication suggests that the Egyptians might have been developing ideas of flight for a long time.”  Here we need 2 nouns -an object that on one pyramid resembled something.  That object suggests that the Egyptians experimented with some idea or theory. The answer, then, is a modern glider, and flight
+  resemble= look uncannily like
+ experiment with= develop ideas of
=>ANSWER:      11. modern glider; 12. flight

13. IN ADDITION, OVER TWO THOUSAND YEARS AGO KITES WERE USED IN CHINA AS WEAPONS, AS WELL AS FOR SENDING …

Keywords: weapons, kites, China, sending
In paragraph 7, the writer states:  “And other ancient civilisations certainly knew about kites;as early as 1250 BC, the Chinese were using them to deliver messages and dump flaming debris on their foes.”  Here we need a noun – something that was sent by kites in China. The answer, therefore, is  messages.
+ send = deliver
=>ANSWER:     13. Messages

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 7 – TEST 4 – PASSAGE 1 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 2: ENDLESS HARVEST

QUESTIONS 14-20 TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

14. THE INHABITANTS OF THE ALEUTIAN ISLANDS RENAMED THEIR ISLANDS “ALEYSKA”

Keywords: inhabitants, renamed, Aleutian islands, Aleyska
In the first paragraph, the writer  says:  ” …Russian explorers and fur hunters landed on the Aleutian Islands…and learned of a land mass that lay farther to the north. The islands‟ native inhabitants called this land mass Aleyska…” This means that the inhabitants of the Aleutian islands only named the land to the north of the islands Aleyska. This was not a new name for their own islands.
=>ANSWER:    FALSE

15. ALASKA’S FISHERIES ARE OWNED BY SOME OF THE WORLD’S LARGEST COMPANIES.

Keywords:  Alaska’s fisheries, owned, world’s largest companies
At the end of paragraph 2, the writer just states: “Taking advantage of this rich bounty, Alaska’s commercial fisheries have developed into some of the largest in the world.” No information indicating their owners  can be found.
=>ANSWER:      NOT GIVEN

16. LIFE IN ALASKA IS DEPENDENT ON SALMON

Keywords: dependent, salmon
In paragraph 3, the writer states:  “Salmon….pump through Alaska like blood through a heart, bringing rhythmic, circulating nourishment to land, animals and people.”  Therefore, the land, animals and people all depend on salmon.
=>ANSWER:     TRUE

17. NINETY PER CENT OF ALL PACIFIC SALMON CAUGHT ARE SOCKEYE OR PINK SALMON

Keywords: ninety per cent,Pacific, caught, sockeye, pink
In paragraph 3, where information on sockeye and pink salmon can be found, the writer explains:  “All five species of Pacific  salmon -chinook, or king; chum or dog; coho, or silver; sockeye, or red; and pink, or humpback- spawn in Alaskan waters, and 90% of all Pacific salmon commercially caught in North America are produced there.” The author only indicates that sockeye and pink salmon spawn in Alaskan waters, but there are 5 species of Pacific salmon.  We do not know what percentage of sockeye or pink salmon are part of the 90% of Pacific salmon caught in general. So, there is no information indicating the percentage of pink and sockeye salmon caught.
=>ANSWER:      NOT GIVEN

18. MORE THAN 320,000 TONNES OF SALMON WERE CAUGHT IN ALASKA IN 2000

Keywords: more, 320,000 tonnes, Alaska, in 2000
At the end of paragraph 3, the writer says: “During 2000, commercial catches of Pacific salmon in Alaska exceeded 320,000 tonnes…”
+ more than = exceed = be greater than a particular amount
=>ANSWER:       TRUE

19. BETWEEN 1940 AND 1959, THERE WAS A SHARP DECREASE IN ALASKA‟S SALMON POPULATION

Keywords: Between 1940 and 1959, sharp decrease, population
In the opening of paragraph 4, the writer says:  “Between 1940 and 1959, overfishing led to crashes in salmon populations so severe that in 1953 Alaska was declared a federal disaster area”
+ a sharp decrease = a crash = a sudden serious fall in the price or value of something In case you have no idea what “crash” means, we can still guess that its meaning is “decrease”, because as stated,  it is caused by overfishing, which means fishing too much, exceeding the allowed amount.
=>ANSWER:     TRUE

20.  DURING THE 1990S, THE AVERAGE NUMBER OF SALMON CAUGHT EACH YEAR WAS 100 MILLION.

Keywords: during the 1990s, average, each year, 100 million
At the end of paragraph 4, the writer states : ” …until, during the 1990s, annual harvests were well in excess of 100 million, and on several occasions over 200 million fish”. This means that the  annual number of salmon caught was over 100 million during the 1990s. Therefore, because the number of salmon caught each year in the 1990s was a lot more than 100 million (and sometimes was over 200 million), it is impossible that the average for each year could be 100 million.
+ each year = annual
+ in excess of  = over
=>ANSWER:       FALSE

QUESTIONS 21-26: COMPLETE EACH SENTENCE WITH THE CORRECT ENDING, A-K, BELOW.

21. IN ALASKA, BIOLOGISTS KEEP A CHECK ON ADULT FISH

Keywords: biologists, check, adult
In paragraph 5, the writer reports: “There are biologists throughout the state constantly monitoring adult fish as they show up to spawn. The biologists sit in streamside counting towers, study sonar, watch from aeroplanes and talk to fishermen.”  In any area, the biologists “…can put a halt to fishing….It is this management mechanism that has allowed Alaska salmon stocks – to prosper…”   Therefore, the most suitable answer is G.
+ keep a check on = monitor = to watch and check something over a period of time in order to see how it develops, so that you can make any necessary changes
+ permit = allow
=>ANSWER:   G  To ensure that fish numbers are sufficient to permit fishing.

22. BIOLOGISTS HAVE THE AUTHORITY

Keywords:  biologists, authority
As mentioned above, the writer says : “one or more field biologists in a particular area can put a halt to fishing. Even sport fishing can be brought to a halt.” This means that biologists have the authority to stop fishing, and particularly sport fishing. The answer, therefore, is  E. Stop people fishing for sport.  We do not choose K.  Biologists in one area can stop fishing in that area, but they cannot close down all the companies engaged in fishing = fisheries.
+ stop = close down =put a halt to = bring a halt to
=>ANSWER:       E. Stop people fishing for sport

23. IN-SEASON ABUNDANCE-BASED MANAGEMENT HAS ALLOWED THE ALASKA SALMON FISHERIES

Keywords : In-Season Abundance -Based Management, allowed,fisheries
In paragraph 5 again, the author also says:  “It is this management mechanism that has allowed Alaska salmon stocks – and, accordingly, Alaska salmon fisheries- to prosper,…” This management mechanism here refers to In-Season Abundance-Based Management
The answer is B.
+ be successful =to prosper = be fortunate or successful
=>ANSWER:       B  to be successful

24. THE MARINE STEWARDSHIP COUNCIL (MSC) WAS ESTABLISHED

Keywords : MSC
In the opening of paragraph 6, the writer states: “In 1999, the Marine Stewardship Council (MSC) commissioned a review of the Alaska salmon fisheries.The Council, which was founded in 1996, certifies fisheries that meet high environmental standards, enabling them to use a label that recognises their environmental responsibility…” This means that MSC was founded to recognise fisheries that meet their environmental standards The answer, then, should be A.
+ established = founded =  started or created an organization, a system, etc. that is meant to last for a long time
+ recognise=certify = admit officially (usually in writing ) that something is true/exists.
=>ANSWER:   Ato recognise fisheries that care for the environment

25. AS A RESULT OF THE COLLAPSE OF THE SALMON RUNS IN 1999, THE STATE DECIDED

Keywords : result,collapse, salmon runs, the state, 1999
In paragraph 7, the author mentions the collapse: “… in the months leading up to the MSC‟s final decision [1999], salmon runs throughout western Alaska completely collapsed.” Then, in the next paragraph, he continues to deal with its result:  “However, the state reacted quickly, closing down all fisheries, even those necessary for subsistence purposes ” Therefore, the answer is K.
=>ANSWER:       K  to close down all fisheries

26. IN SEPTEMBER 2000, THE MSC ALLOWED SEVEN ALASKA SALMON COMPANIES

Keywords : MSC, September 2000, allowed, seven, companies
In the last paragraph, the writer states: ” In September 2000, MSC announced that the Alaska salmon fisheries qualified for certification. Seven companies producing Alaska salmon were immediately granted permission to display the MSC logo on their products.” This means that the MSC allowed seven companies to have the MSC logo on their products. The answer, therefore, is F.
+ allow = grant permission
=>ANSWER:      F  label their product using the MSC logo

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 7 – TEST 4 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 3: EFFECTS OF NOISE

QUESTIONS 27-29 CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER

27. THE WRITER SUGGESTS THAT PEOPLE MAY HAVE DIFFICULTY SLEEPING IN THE MOUNTAINS BECAUSE

Keywords : sleeping,  mountains, because
In paragraph 1, the writer states:  “And yet most of us have had the experience of having to adjust to sleeping in the mountains or the countryside because it was initially „too quiet‟, an experience that suggests that humans are capable of adapting to a wide range of noise levels.” This means that most people have to adjust to sleeping in the mountains  because they are not used to the quiet here. They have adapted to noise in the city. Therefore the answer is D. They may have adapted to a higher noise level in the city. A is not correct because the writer states: “In general, it is plausible to suppose that we should prefer peace and quiet to noise” B is not correct because the situation in which people may be exposed to short bursts of sounds is a condition in an experiment by Glass and Singer (1972).No information is given about the exposure of people in mountains to strange sounds. C is not correct because in paragraph 1, there is no information indicating that people prefer noise to sleep.
=>ANSWER:      D  they may have adapted to a higher noise level in the city

28. IN NOISE EXPERIMENTS, GLASS AND SINGER FOUND THAT

Keywords: experiments, Glass and Singer
In paragraph 1, the writer says:  “The noise was quite disruptive at first, but after about  four minutes the subjects were doing just as well on their tasks as control subjects who were not exposed to noise.” This means that bursts of noise only affect the subjects at first, then they have no further effects. The answer, therefore, is C. Bursts of noise do not seriously disrupt problem-solving in the long term.  A is not correct because the result of the research shows that  ” …after about four minutes the subjects were doing just as well on their tasks as control subjects who were not exposed to noise” B is not correct because we learn about their physiological reactions to noise and:  “Their physiological arousal also declined quickly to the same levels as those of the control subjects.” So, from the above sentence, we know that D is not correct, because the writer refers to the physiological arousal only of the people exposed to noise:  “Their physiological arousal also declined quickly to the same level as those of the control subjects.”  The control group subjects were not exposed to noise.
=>ANSWER:     C bursts of noise do not seriously disrupt problem-solving in the long term

29. RESEARCHERS DISCOVERD THAT HIGH NOISE LEVELS ARE NOT LIKELY TO INTERFERE WITH THE

Keywords: high noise levels, not likely, interfere
In the opening of paragraph 2, the writer argues: “But there are limits to adaptation and loud noise becomes more troublesome if the person is required to concentrate on more than one task.” This means that if the person is required to do only one task, loud noise will not become a problem to him. Therefore, the answer is A. successful performance of a single task. B  and D are not correct because the writer says:  “For example, high noise levels interfered with the performance of the subjects who were required to monitor three dials at a time, a task not unlike that of an aeroplane pilot or an air-traffic controller (Broadbent, 1957)”. This means that tasks of pilots or traffic controllers are similar to the task of monitoring three dials at a time, with which high noise levels could interfere. C is not correct because the writer states:  “Similarly, noise….did interfere with the subject’s abilitly to repeat numbers while tracking (Finkelman and Glass, 1970).
+ become troublesome = interfere with
+ high noise level = loud noise
=>ANSWER:      A  successful performance of a single task

QUESTIONS 30-34 COMPLETE THE SUMMARY

Skimming through the summary, it can be seen that it deals with the experiments of Glass and Singer.
Therefore we should find the information in paragraphs 3 to 5.

30. GLASS AND SINGER SHOWED THAT SITUATIONS IN WHICH THERE IS INTENSE NOISE HAVE LESS EFFECT ON PERFORMANCE THAN CIRCUMSTANCES IN WHICH … NOISE OCCURS.

Keywords: intense noise, less effect, noise occurs
In paragraph 3, the writer says:  “We are much more able to “tune out” chronic background noise, even if it is quite loud, than to work under circumstances with unexpected intrusions of noise.” This means that we are able to work better with intense noise than unexpected noise. Here we need an adjective to describe a kind of noise that is compared to intense noise, and which has more effect on performance.
+ intense = loud
The answer, therefore, is B.
=>ANSWER:        B  unexpected noise

31. ALL GROUPS WERE EXPOSED TO … NOISE

Keywords: All groups, exposed
In paragraph 3, the writer says:  “For some subjects, the bursts were spaced exactly one minute apart (predictable noise); others heard the same amount of noise overall, but the bursts occurred at random intervals (unpredictable noise).” This means that all subjects hear the same amount of noise.
The answer is D.
=>ANSWER:      D  the same amount of

32. THE PREDICTABLE NOISE GROUP … THE UNPREDICTABLE NOISE GROUP ON THIS TASK

Keywords: predictable, unpredictable
In the same paragraph, the writer continues:  “Subjects reported finding the predictable and unpredictable noise equally annoying, and all subjects performed at about the same level during the noise portion of the experiment.” The answer, then, is  F.
=>ANSWER:      F  perform at about the same level as

33. THE GROUP WHICH HAD BEEN EXPOSED TO UNPREDICTABLE NOISE

Keywords: unpredictable
In paragraph 3, the writer says: “As shown in Table 1 the unpredictable noise produced more errors in the later proofreading task than predictable noise;” Therefore the answer is I [made more mistakes than the group which had been exposed to predictable noise]
+ make mistakes =produce errors
=>ANSWER:       I  made more mistakes than

34. THE RESULTS SUGGEST THAT … NOISE PRODUCES FATIGUE BUT THAT THIS MANIFESTS ITSELF LATER.

Keywords: noise, fatigue, manifests itself later
In paragraph 4, the writer concludes:  “Apparently, unpredictable noise produces more fatigue than predictable noise, but it takes a while for this fatigue to take its toll on the performance” .This means that unpredictable noise produces more fatigue, but its effect comes later. The answer, then, should be B.
=>ANSWER:     B  unpredictable

QUESTIONS 35-40 MATCH EACH STATEMENT WITH THE CORRECT RESEARCHERS

A.  Glass and Singer
B.   Broadbent
C.   Finkelman and Glass
D.  Cohen at al.

35. SUBJECTS EXPOSED TO NOISE FIND IT DIFFICULT AT FIRST TO CONCENTRATE ON PROBLEM-SOLVING TASKS

Keywords : problems-solving tasks
In paragraph 1, the writer says: “For example, Glass and Singer (1972) exposed people to shorts bursts of very loud noise and then measured their ability to work out problems …. The noise was quite disruptive at first…” So the conclusion is from Glass and Singer’s research
+ problem-solving = work out problems
=>ANSWER:       A

36. LONG-TERM EXPOSURE TO NOISE CAN PRODUCE CHANGES IN BEHAVIOUR WHICH CAN STILL BE OBSERVED OVER A YEAR LATER.

Keywords: long-term exposure, changes in behaviour, a year later
In the last paragraph the writer states: “A follow-up study showed that children who were moved to less noisy classrooms still showed greater distractibility one year later than students who had always been in the quiet schools (Cohen et al, 1981) “
The changes in behaviour which can be observed a year later here is greater distractibility. So it can be inferred that this statement is from Cohen et al‟s study
=>ANSWER:      D

37. THE PROBLEMS ASSOCIATED WITH EXPOSURE TO NOISE DO NOT ARISE IF THE SUBJECT KNOWS THEY CAN MAKE IT STOP.

Keywords: the subject knows they can make it stop
In paragraph 5, the writer argues:  “If the individual knows that he or she can control the noise, this seems to eliminate both its negative effect at the time and its after-effects. This is true even if the individual never actually excercises his or her option to turn the noise off (Glass and Singer, 1972)” This means  that if the individual knows that he can control the noise, particularly turn the noise off, he will not suffer its negative effects.
Therefore this statement is from Glass and Singer’s research.
+ make the noise stop = turn  the noise off
=>ANSWER:       A

38. EXPOSURE TO HIGH-PITCHED NOISE RESULTS IN MORE ERRORS THAN EXPOSURE TO LOW-PITCHED NOISE

Keywords: high-pitched, low-pitched, more errors
Although, in paragraph 2, we are told that Broadbent discovered that loud noise becomes a problem, and we make more mistakes, when a person has to concentrate on more than one task, this is simply a limit on how well we can adapt to exposure to loud noise.  So, no researcher found that high-pitched noise produces more errors in all situations.
=>ANSWER:       E

39. SUBJECTS FIND IT DIFFICULT TO PERFORM THREE TASKS AT THE SAME TIME WHEN EXPOSED TO NOISE

Keywords: three tasks at the same time
In paragraph 2, the writer explains: “For example, high noise levels interfered with the performance of the subjects who were required to monitor three dials at a time… “(Broadbent, 1957)
+ difficult to perform = interfered with the performance of
+ at the same time = at a time
The answer is B.
=>ANSWER:       B

40. NOISE AFFECTS A SUBJECT’S CAPACITY TO REPEAT NUMBERS WHILE CARRYING OUT ANOTHER TASK.

Keywords: repeat numbers, carrying out another task
In the same paragraph, the writer also states:  “Similarly, noise did not affect a subject’s ability to track a moving line…, but it did interfere with the subject’s ability to repeat numbers while tracking (Finkelman and Glass, 1970) So it is clear that the statement is from Finkelman and Glass’s study.
+ another task here refers to tracking
=>ANSWER:       C

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. NOT GIVEN
4. TRUE
5. FALSE
6. NOT GIVEN
7. TRUE
8. (WOODEN) PULLEYS
9. STONE
10. (ACCOMPLISHED) SAILORS
11. (MODERN) GLIDER
12. FLIGHT
13. MESSAGES
8.      (WOODEN) PULLEYS
9.      STONE
10.  (ACCOMPLISHED) SAILORS
11.  (MODERN) GLIDER
12.  FLIGHT
13.  MESSAGES
14. FALSE
15. NOT GIVEN
16. TRUE
17. NOT GIVEN
18. TRUE
19. TRUE
20. FALSE
21. G
22. E
23. B
24. A
25. K
26. F
27. D
28. C
29. A
30. B
31. D
32. F
33. I
34. B
35. A
36. D
37. A
38. E
39. B
40. C

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 7 READING TEST 3 ANSWERS 


Cambridge IELTS 7 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 7 reading test 3 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: ANT INTELLIGENCE

QUESTIONS 1-6 TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

1. ANTS USE THE SAME CHANNELS OF COMMUNICATION AS HUMANS DO

Keywords: same channels of communication, humans
In the second paragraph, the writer says: “Ants store food, repel attackers and use chemical signals to contact one another in case of attack. Such chemical communication can be compared to the human use of visual and auditory channels (as in religious chants, advertising images and jingles, political slogans and martial music) ….” This means that ants use chemical signals to communicate and humans use visual and auditory channels. These two channels of communication can be compared to each other, but they are not the same.
=> ANSWER:   FALSE

2. CITY LIFE IS ONE FACTOR THAT ENCOURAGES THE DEVELOPMENT OF INTELLIGENCE.

Keywords: city life, encourages, intelligence
In paragraph 7, the writer states: “Whereas prehistoric man had no exposure to urban lifestyles- the forcing house of intelligence- the evidence suggests that ants have lived in urban settings for close on a hundred million years…” This means that city life is what encourages the growth of intelligence, so it is one factor encouraging the development of intelligence.
+ city life = urban lifestyles
+ the forcing house= factor that encourages the development of intelligence
=> ANSWER:      TRUE

3. ANTS CAN BUILD LARGE CITIES MORE QUICKLY THAN HUMANS DO.

Keywords: large cities, more quickly
Information relating to the  building of ants and humans can be found in paragraphs 7 and 8, where the writer says: ” Yet Hoelldobler and Wilson’s magnificient work for ant lovers, The Ants, describes a super colony of the ant Formica yessens is on the Ishikari Coast of Hokkaido. This “megalopolis” was reported to be composed of 360 million workers and a million queens living  in 4,500 interconnected nests across a territory of 2.7 square kilometres.Such enduring and intricately meshed levels of technical achievement outstrip by far anything achieved by our distant ancestors.” This means that ants are compared to humans in terms of technical achievement (specifically “large cities”in this case) , but there is no mention of the speed of building.
+ large city = megalopolis
+ humans = ancestors
=> ANSWER:     NOT GIVEN

4. SOME ANTS CAN FIND THEIR WAY BY MAKING CALCULATIONS BASED ON DISTANCE AND POSITION

Keywords: find their way, distance, position
In paragraph 10, the writer reports:”Research conducted at Oxford, Sussex and Zurich Universities has shown that when desert ants return from a foraging trip, they navigate by integrating bearings and distances…….”
+ find their way = navigate
+  position = bearing = direction
+ integrate = combine two or more things so that they work together.  In this context, integrating can be understood as making calculations as ants combine “bearings and distances”.
=> ANSWER:      TRUE

5. IN ONE EXPERIMENT, FORAGING TEAMS WERE ABLE TO USE THEIR SENSE OF SMELL TO FIND FOOD.

Keywords: experiment, foraging, smell
In paragraph 11, where the experiment is described, the writer says: “Elaborate precautions were taken to prevent the foraging team using odour clues.”.
This means that foraging teams in the experiment cannot rely on smell to find food.
+ odour = smell
=> ANSWER:      FALSE

6. THE ESSAY, ” IN THE COMPANY OF ANTS”, EXPLORES ANT COMMUNICATION.

Keywords: In the company of ants, communication
In the last paragraph, the writer says: “It‟s no surprise that Edward Wilson, in his essay, “In the company of ants”, advises readers who ask what to do with the ants in their kitchen to  “Watch where you step. Be careful of little lives”. The writer just states that the essay advises people to take notice of ants. There is no information about whether the essay does or does not explore ant communication.
=> ANSWER:     NOT GIVEN

QUESTIONS 7-13 COMPLETE THE SUMMARY

7. THE ANTS CULTIVATE A LARGE NUMBER OF DIFFERENT SPECIES OF EDIBLE FUNGI WHICH CONVERT… INTO A FORM WHICH THEY CAN DIGEST.

Keywords: fungi, convert, digest
In paragraph 5, the writer says: ” Ants can‟tdigest the cellulose in leaves- but some fungi can. The ants therefore cultivate these fungi in their nests, bringing them leaves to feed on, and then use them as a source of food.” So it can be inferred that ants cultivate fungi because these fungi can digest cellulose, which ants cannot digest.  After the fungi have eaten the leaves, the cellulose in the leaves is converted by the fungi into a form of food that ants can then digest. Here we need a noun- something that fungi can digest,and something that they convert into a different form for ants to eat.=> ANSWER:     C.cellulose

8-9. THEY USE THEIR OWN NATURAL… AS WEED-KILLERS AND ALSO USE UNWANTED MATERIAL AS…

Keywords: own natural, weed-killers, unwanted
In the next sentence, the writer continues : ” Farmer ants secrete antibiotics to control other fungi that might act as “weeds”, and spread waste to fertilise the crop.” This means that ants secrete (produce from their own bodies) antibiotics to kill weeds. Therefore the most suitable words to be filled here should be:
=> ANSWER:     M. secretions
Also, it can be seen that ants use waste to fertilise their crop. So unwanted material is used as fertilizers.
+ unwanted material = waste
The answer is:
=> ANSWER:     F. fertilizers

10. GENETIC ANALYSIS SHOWS THEY CONSTANTLY UPGRADE THESE FUNGI BY DEVELOPING NEW SPECIES AND BY… SPECIES WITH THEIR NEIGHBOURING ANT COLONIES.

Keywords: upgrade, species, neighbouring ant colonies
In paragraph 6, the writer states: “These turned out to be highly diverse: it seems that ants are continually domesticating new species. Even more impressively, DNA analysis of the fungi suggests that the ants improve or modify the fungi by regularly swapping and sharing strains with neighbouring ant colonies”
+ upgrade = improve or modify
+ exchange= swap and share
Here we need a verb-ing which has the same meaning as swapping and sharing. The most suitable answer is:
=> ANSWER:    D. Exchanging

11-13. IN FACT,THE FARMING METHODS OF ANTS COULD BE SAID TO BE MORE ADVANCED THAN HUMAN AGRIBUSINESS, SINCE THEY USE …METHODS, THEY DO NOT AFFECT THE… AND DO NOT WASTE…

Keywords:  farming methods, affect, waste
Here we have a comparison in farming methods between ants and humans, in which ants is more advanced. Human agribusiness is referred to at the end of paragraph 3.  The information therefore could be navigated to be in paragraph 4, where the author notes the contrast between human agribusiness at the end of the previous paragraph and ants: ” The farming methods of ants are at least sustainable. They do not ruin environments or use enormous amounts of energy.” Number 11, we need an adjective to describe the farming methods of ants. The answer is:
=> ANSWER:   N.sustainable
Number 12, we need a noun-something that they do not affect
=> ANSWER:   the environment
Number 13, we need a noun-something they do not waste
=> ANSWER:    energy
+ affect the enviroment= ruin the environment
+ waste energy  = use enormous amounts of energy
=> ANSWER:     11. N. sustainable
=> ANSWER:    12. O. environment
=> ANSWER:    13 E. Energy

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 7 – TEST 3 – PASSAGE 1 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 2: POPULATION MOVEMENTS AND GENETICS

QUESTIONS 14-19 CHOOSE THE CORRECT HEADING

14. SECTION A

This is a short paragraph. Skimming through the whole paragraph, it can be seen that the writer talks about the development in techniques of studying population movements by using words indicating development: used to be based on – developed-the best -now being obtained… The writer also refers to early population movements in this section: “Study of the origins and distribution of human population used to be based on…. A number of new techniques developed…. the best information on early population movements is now being…” Looking back at the heading list,  it can be seen that heading –  iv. Developments in the methods used to study early population movements – deals with early population movements and its content matches the main content of the section
+ methods = techniques
=> ANSWER:    iv  Developments in the methods used to study early population movements

15. SECTION B

From the first sentence, we can infer that the paragraph is going to deal with migration to America: “Recent work on the problem of when people first entered the Americas is an example of the value of these new techniques.” Then the author continues with 2 questions   “But was there one major wave of migration?….And when did this event, or events, take place?” Looking back at the heading lists, the most suitable heading should be vii. Long-standing questions about prehistoric migration to America
+ prehistoric migration to America corresponds to the problem of when people first entered the Americas
=> ANSWER:      vii  Long-standing questions about prehistoric migration to America

16.SECTION C

In the first sentence , the writer says : ” An important project, led by the biological anthropologist Robert Williams, focused on the variants (called Gmallotypes) of one particular protein … found in the fluid portion of human blood.” Then in the last sentence he concludes: “Thus, by comparing the Gmallotypes … one can establish their  genetic “distance”, which can  be calibrated to give an indication of the length of time since these populations last interbred.” So it can be inferred that the paragraph deals with how variants of protein in our blood are used to explore relationships among different populations.
The most suitable heading is x. How analysis of blood-variants measures the closeness of the relationship between different populations
+ blood-variants = the variants found in human blood
+ measure corresponds to „give an indication of the length of…‟
+ closeness of the relationship corresponds to genetic distance, interbred
=> ANSWER:      x    How  analysis  of  blood-variants  measures  the  closeness  of  the  relationship  between different populations

17. SECTION D

In the  first sentences, the writer reports:  ” Williams and his colleagues sampled the blood of over 5000 American Indians….They found that their Gmallotypes could be divided into two groups… Other tests showed that. …From this evidence, it was deduced that…” So  we know that the paragraph refers to the result of Williams‟s project – the tests carried out and the evidence found from the results. The best suitable heading is:
=> ANSWER:      i  The result of the research into blood-variants

18. SECTION E

In the first sentence, the writer poses a question : ” How far does other research support these conclusions?” followed by the next sentence: ” Geneticist Douglas…” So, it is clear that the other research is carried out by this geneticist – it is genetic research.  The conclusions which this genetic research supports is the conclusion mentioned in Section D – that there were three waves of migration. So the most suitable heading is:
=> ANSWER:    vi:Further genetic evidence relating to the three-wave theory.

19. SECTION F

In the first sentence, the writer says : ” There are two other kinds of research… they involve the study of teeth and languages.” Then he continues:  “The biological anthropologist Christy Turner is an expert in…human teeth.” After that,by skimming, it can be seen that the other part of the paragraph consists of words relating to “teeth” : crown, root, incisor. Therefore, we know that the paragraph is about evidence in terms of teeth. The most suitable heading is ii. Dental evidence
+ dental = relating to teeth
=> ANSWER:         ii Dental evidence

QUESTIONS 20-21

20. INFORMATION ABOUT WILLIAMS‟S RESEARCH IS IN SECTION D.

The writer states: ” From this evidence it was deduced that there had been three major waves of migration across the Bering Strait. The first, Paleo-Indian, wave more than 1500 years ago was ancestral to all Central and South American Indians.”
Only route E goes from somewhere in Asia, across the Bering Strait and then continues to Central and South America
=> ANSWER:        E

21. IN THE NEXT SENTENCE, THE WRITER SAYS: ” THE SECOND WAVE…(WHO ONLY MIGRATED SOUTH FROM CANADA ABOUT 600 OR 700 YEARS AGO.”

The map shows this second wave took place over two periods, indicated by the dotted line (C)  – the first period 14,000 to 12,000 years ago.  After a long time in Canada, in the second period 600 or 700 years ago, these people migrated south from Canada to the USA, shown on the map by the arrows, D. So, this route is from Canada to the USA, 600 or 700 years ago.
=> ANSWER:        D

QUESTIONS 22-25

22.  AGAIN, IT IS SECTION  D WHICH FIRST REFERS TO THE , THREE WAVE THEORY.

The writer states :”The third wave, perhaps 10,000 or 9,000 years ago, saw the migration from North East Asia of groups ancestral to the modern Eskimo (Inuit) and Aleut”.
=> ANSWER:         C

23. IN THE SAME PARAGRAPH, THE WRITER ALSO SAYS :

” The second wave…brought Na-Dene hunters, ancestors of the Navajo and Apache …”
=> ANSWER:         B

24. PIMA-PAPAGO

In Section E, the writer states: ” Geneticist Douglas Wallace has studied….Pima-Papago Indians…Maya Indians and Ticuna Indians……all three groups appear to be descended from the same ancestral (Paleo -Indian) population. ” We know from Section D, that this population was the first wave: ” The first, Paleo-Indian, wave…”
=> ANSWER:         A

25.  TICUNA

=> ANSWER:         A

QUESTION 26. CHOOSE THE CORRECT LETTER A, B, C, D CHIRSTY TURNER’S RESEARCH INVOLVED THE EXAMINATION OF

Keywords : Christy Turner’s research, examination
Christy Turner‟s research is described in Section F:We know that: “Christy Turner is an expert in the analysis of changing physical characteristics in human teeth.”Studies carried out by Turner of many thousands of New and Old World specimens, both ancient and modern, suggest that the majority of prehistoric Americans are linked to Northern Asian populations by crown and root traits and …” So, Turner‟s research examined thousands of New and Old World teeth, both ancient and modern.
=> ANSWER:  A. teeth from both prehistoric and modern Americans and Asians
+ teeth is specimens
+ prehistoric = ancient
+ New World = American
+ Old World = Europe, Asia and Africa
B, D are not correct because the object of the study is  specimens of teeth,  not humans or eating habits. C is not correct because specimens were studied not only from prehistoric Americans, but also modern Americans,  as well as ancient and modern Asians.

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 7 – TEST 3 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 3: PLANS TO PROTECT THE FORESTS OF EUROPE

QUESTIONS  27-33 TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

27. FOREST PROBLEMS OF MEDITERRANEAN COUNTRIES ARE TO BE DISCUSSED AT THE NEXT MEETING OF EXPERTS.

Keywords: Mediterranean, next meeting, experts
Information on Mediterranean countries can only be found at the end of paragraph 1, where the writer states: ” Those confined to particular geographical areas, such as countries bordering the Mediterranean or the Nordic countries therefore had to be discarded. However this does not mean that in the future they will be ignored.”  This means that  the first two meeting of experts did not deal with problems of Mediterranean countries, and that they will be noticed in the future. The writer doesn‟t indicate a particular time when the problem will be discussed.
=> ANSWER:        NOT GIVEN

28. PROBLEMS IN NORDIC COUNTRIES WERE EXCLUDED BECAUSE THEY ARE OUTSIDE THE EUROPEAN ECONOMIC COMMUNITY.

Keywords: Nordic, outside the European Economic Community.
In paragraph 1 the writer says:  “Their initial task was to decide which of the many forest problems of concern to Europe involved the largest number of countries and might be the subject of joint action. Those confined to particular geographical areas, such as countries bordering the Mediterranean or the Nordic countries therefore had to be discarded.” Therefore, the reason for excluding Nordic countries here is that their problems are particular/special to that geographical area, not to all of Europe.
+ exclude = discard
=> ANSWER:       FALSE

29. FORESTS ARE A RENEWABLE SOURCE OF RAW MATERIAL

Keywords:  renewable, raw material
In paragraph 2, the writer states:  “At the same time, forests provide raw materials for human activities through their constantly renewed production of wood.”
=> ANSWER:       TRUE

30. THE BIOLOGICAL FUNCTIONS OF FORESTS WERE RECOGNISED ONLY IN THE TWENTIETH CENTURY.

Keywords : biological, twentieth century
In paragraph 2, the writer argues:   “The economic importance of forests has been understood since the dawn of man…..The other aspects have been recognised only for a few centuries but they are becoming more and more important.” “The other aspects” here are ones mentioned in the first sentence of the paragraph in which the writer refers to the „triple function‟ of forests in Europe:biological and recreational, as well as economic. This means that biological functions have been recognised for a few centuries, not only in the twentieth century.
=> ANSWER:        FALSE

31. NATURAL FORESTS STILL EXIST IN PARTS OF EUROPE

Keywords: natural, parts
In paragraph 3, the writer says: ” The myth of the “natural forest” has survived , yet there are effectively no remaining “primary” forests in Europe.All European forests are artificial…”
+ natural forests = primary forests
+ not natural = artificial
=> ANSWER:         FALSE

32. FOREST POLICY SHOULD BE LIMITED BY NATIONAL BOUNDARIES.

Keywords: forest policy, limited, national boundaries
In the next sentence of paragraph 3, the writer argues :  “This means that a forest policy is vital, that it must transcend national frontiers and generations of people…” This means forest policy should not be limited by national boundaries.
+ boundaries = frontiers
+ not limit = transcend (go beyond the limits of countries)
=> ANSWER:       FALSE

33. THE STRASBOURG CONFERENCE DECIDED THAT A FOREST POLICY MUST ALLOW FOR THE POSSIBILITY OF CHANGE.

Keywords: Strasbourg, forest policy, allow for, change
In paragraph 3, the writer argues : “This means that a forest policy is vital, that it must transcend national frontiers and generations of people, that it must allow for the inevitable changes that take place in the forests, in needs,and hence in policy. The Strasbourg conference was one of the first events on such a scale to reach this conclusion.” ” …this conclusion” here is that:  “it must transcend national frontiers ….allow for the inevitable changes…”  Thus, the Strasbourg conference was the first event to reach this conclusion means that it allows for the changes which are certain to take place.
=> ANSWER:         TRUE

QUESTIONS  34-39

34. RESOLUTION 1

Paragraph 4 discusses the resolutions made at the conference.  “The first proposes the extension and systematisation of surveillance sites to monitor forest decline.”  Thus, there will be more forest sites surveyed and systematically monitored, to gather information regularly about the condition of forests. Therefore,the most suitable statement, relating to forest decline, is J. 35. Resolution 2. In paragraph 4, the writer says:  “The second resolution concentrates on the need to preserve the genetic diversity of European forests. The aim is to reverse the decline in the number of tree species or at least to preserve the ‘genetic material’ of all of them.” So this resolution deals with preservation of the diversity of tree species.Therefore the most suitable statement is A.
=> ANSWER:        A All kinds of species of trees should be preserved.

36. RESOLUTION 3

In paragraph 4, the writer states: “Although forest fires do not affect all of Europe to the same extent, the amount of damage caused the experts to propose as the third resolution that the Strasbourg conference consider the establishment of a European databank on the subject.” So we know that this resolution deals with the need to establish a databank on forest fires, with the information made available to all of Europe. The most suitable answer, therefore, should be  E.
+ collect information = establish a databank
=> ANSWER:    E  Information on forest fires should be collected and shared.

37. RESOLUTION 4

In paragraph 4, the writer states: “The subject of the fourth resolution discussed by the ministers was mountain forests….Proposed developments include a preferential research program on mountain forests.”   The answer therefore is B.
+ be given priority = preferential
=> ANSWER: B  Fragile mountain forests should be given priority in research programs

38. RESOLUTION 5

In paragraph 4, the writer says:  “The fifth resolution relaunched the European research network on the physiology of trees, called Eurosilva. Eurosilva should support joint European research on tree diseases and their physiological and biochemical aspects.” So, this resolution deals with developing a research network on tree diseases and their physiological and biochemical aspects.
The answer, then, should be a statement concerning tree diseases:  G.
=> ANSWER: G  Resources should be allocated to research into tree diseases.

39. RESOLUTION 6

At the end of paragraph 4, the writer states:  “Finally, the conference established the framework for a European research network on forest ecosystems.  This would also involve harmonising activities in individual countries as well as identifying a number of priority research topics…” So the conference established a research framework for Europe, in which individual countries would pursue the same activities and have the same priority for research topics. The most suitable statement left, therefore should be D.
+ co-ordinate throughout Europe corresponds to establishing a European research network.
=> ANSWER:         D  Research is to be better co-ordinated throughout Europe.

QUESTION 40  THE BEST TITLE FOR PASSAGE 3

The structure of the passage: goes from [1] posing a need for new policies by European countries to protect Europe‟s forests, then continues to talk about [2] the functions of forests [3]to stress the importance of coordinated policies and [4]finally goes into detail about 6 resolutions proposed  by a conference.  It should be noticed that the resolution part – paragraph 4 –  accounts for half of the passage’s length. Therefore, its main content is about ways to improve the decline of forests throughout Europe. So the best title should be B.
A is not correct because it just refers to paragraph 2.
C is not correct because it refers to ecosystems in general, but the passage refers only to forest ecosystems.
D is not correct because the proposal is just on a European scale, not world-wide.
=> ANSWER:       B  Plans to protect the forests of Europe.

1.      FALSE
2.      TRUE
3.      NOT GIVEN
4.      TRUE
5.      FALSE
6.      NOT GIVEN
7.      C
8.      M
9.      F
10.  D
11.  N
12.  O
13.  E
14. iv
15. vii
16. X
17.  I  
18. vi
19. ii
20.  E
21. D
22.  C
23.  B
24.  A
25.  A
26.  A
27.  NOT GIVEN
28.  FALSE
29.  TRUE
30.  FALSE
31.  FALSE
32.  FALSE
33.  TRUE
34.  J
35.  A
36.  E
37.  B
38.  G
39.  D
40.  B
CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 7 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS


Cambridge IELTS 7 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 7 reading test 2 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: WHY PAGODAS DON’T FALL DOWN

QUESTIONS 1-4 YES, NO, NOT GIVEN

1. ONLY TWO JAPANESE PAGODAS HAVE COLLAPSED IN 1400 YEARS.

Keywords: only , two, collapsed, 1400 years
In the first paragraph, the writer says: ” Records show that only two have collapsed during the past 1400 years.”
=> ANSWER:  YES

2. THE HANSHIN EARTHQUAKE OF 1995 DESTROYED THE PAGODA AT THE TOJI TEMPLE

Keywords: Hanshin earthquake, 1995, destroyed, Toji temple
In the first paragraph, the writer states: ” The disastrous Hanshin earthquake in 1995 killed 6400 people…. Yet it left the magnificent five-storey pagoda at the Toji temple in nearby Kyoto unscathed….” This means the Hanshin earthquake did not destroy the pagoda at the Toji temple as it left the pagoda unscathed.
+ unscathed = not damaged
=> ANSWER:     NO

3. THE OTHER BUILDINGS NEAR THE TOJI PAGODA HAD BEEN BUILT IN THE LAST 30 YEARS.

Keywords: other buildings, near, Toji pagoda, 30 years
Information about buildings near the Toji pagoda can only be found in paragraph 1, in which the writer reports:  “Yet it left the magnificent five-storey pagoda at the Toji temple in nearby Kyoto unscathed, though it levelled a number of buildings in the neighbourhood.” The writer only indicates that the buildings near the Toji temple were levelled – they fell to the ground -as a result of the  earthquake. No information relating to the date of these buildings is mentioned.
+ near=in the neighbourhood
=> ANSWER:    NOT GIVEN

4 .THE BUILDERS OF PAGODAS KNEW HOWTO ABSORB SOME OF THE POWER PRODUCED BY SEVERE WEATHER CONDITIONS.

Keywords: builders of pagodas, knew, absorb, power, weather conditions
In paragraph 4, the writer says:  “When the pagoda reached Japan, however, its architecture was freely adapted to local conditions – they were built less high…made mainly of wood…Because of the typhoons that batter Japan in the summer, Japanese builders learned to extend the eaves of buildings further beyond the walls.  This prevents rain water gushing down the walls.
+ severe weather conditions=typhoons [storms with powerful rain and winds]
+ batter=hit powerfully
=> ANSWER:    YES

QUESTIONS  5-10  CLASSIFY THE FOLLOWING AS TYPICAL OF

A.  Both Chinese and Japanese pagodas
B.   Only Chinese pagodas
C.  Only Japanese pagodas
Information about Japanese pagodas is mainly found in paragraph 4.

5. EASY INTERIOR ACCESS TO TOP

In paragraph 4, the writer says: ” The Chinese built their pagodas in brick or stone, with inner staircases… When the pagoda reached Japan…(it was) made mainly of wood and the staircase was dispensed with because the Japanese pagoda did not have any particular use but became more of an art object.” This indicates that only Chinese pagodas have staircases, which allow easy interior access to the top, so that it was easy to reach the top and use the pagoda as a watchtower.  In Japanese pagodas, no staircases were built.
+ Dispense with (st) = stop using something because it’s no longer needed = do away with it It should be noticed here that we don’t necessarily need  to know the meaning of “dispense ” to learn that Japanese pagodas don‟t have stairs.  The writer states that the main use of Japanese pagodas is as an art object, so we can guess that they don‟t need staircases.
+ interior access=inner staircases
=> ANSWER:     B

6. TILES ON EAVES

In the last sentence of paragraph 5, the writer says: ” For the same reason, the builders of Japanese pagodas seem to have further increased their weight by choosing to cover these extended eaves not with the porcelain tiles of many Chinese pagodas but with much heavier earthenware tiles” So, although they have different types of tiles, both Chinese and Japanese pagodas have tiles on eaves.
=> ANSWER:     A

7. USE AS OBSERVATION POST

In paragraph 4, the writer says: ” The Chinese built their pagodas… and used them in later centuries as watch towers.”  On the other hand, as mentioned above, we see that Japanese pagodas served only as an art object.
+ observation post = watchtower
+  observe = watch
=> ANSWER:     B

8. SIZE OF EAVES UP TO HALF THE WIDTH OF THE BUILDING

In paragraph 5, the writer says:  “The roof of a Japanese temple building can be made to overhang the sides of the structure by fifty percentor more of the building‟s overall width”, and doesn‟t mention Chinese pagodas.
+ pagoda=temple building
+ eaves = roof
+ up to half = by fifty per cent
=> ANSWER:  C

9. ORIGINAL RELIGIOUS PURPOSE

In paragraph 4, the writer states: ” The multi-storey pagoda came to Japan from China in the sixth century. As in China, they were first introduced with Buddhism and were attached to important temples.” This means that multi-storey pagodas accompanied the spread of Buddhism from China to Japan, and were attached to existing important temples . Thus, the pagodas in Japan and China were built with a religious purpose, associated with Buddhism.
+ original=first introduced
=> ANSWER:   A

10. FLOORS FITTING LOOSELY OVER EACH OTHER.

In paragraph 7, the writer says about Japanese pagodas: “What those early craftsmen had found by trial and error was that under pressure a pagoda’s loose stack of floors could be made to slither to and fro….”This means that only in Japanese pagodas, can we find floors not actually connected, but placed on top of each other/stacked.
=> ANSWER:     C

11. IN A JAPANESE PAGODA, THE SHINBASHIRA

Keywords: Japanese, shinbashira
In paragraph  6, the writer says: ” Is the answer that , like a tall pine tree, the Japanese pagoda – with its massive trunk-like central pillar known as shinbashira -simply flexes and sways during a typhoon or earthquake? …But the answer is not so simple because the startling thing is that the shinbashira actually carries no load at all.” So it can be concluded that A and B are not correct.
+ bend corresponds to flex and sway
+ bear =carry
+ weight = load
The writer continues : ” In fact, in some pagoda designs, it does not even rest on the ground, but is suspended from the top of the pagoda…..”  This means that it will not connect the floor with the foundations, as it does not even rest on the ground.
+ foundation: a construction below the ground distributing the load of a building. So C is not correct.
In paragraph 7, the writer says : ” The shinbashira, running up through a hole in the centre of the building, constrained individual storeys from moving too far….”
+ stop = constrain = hold back, restrict
+ floor = storey
So the  answer is D: stops the floors moving too far.
=> ANSWER:     D

12. SHUZO ISHIDA PERFORMS EXPERIMENTS IN ORDER TO

Keywords: Shuzo Ishida, experiments
In paragraph 7, the writer indicates: ” Mr Ishida, known to his students as “Professor Pagoda” because of his passion to understand the pagoda, has built a series of models and tested them on a “shaketable” in his laboratory.” So the purpose of the experiment is to understand the pagoda. The possible answers are    C.Learn about the dynamics of pagodas  D. understand ancient mathematics.
However, in the following sentences, the writer says: “The ancient craftsmen, apparently without the assistance of very advanced mathematics…” This means that there were no “ancient mathematics” to understand here. So D is not correct.  The correct answer is C: learn about the dynamics of pagodas.
=> ANSWER:     C

13. THE STOREYS OF A JAPANESE PAGODA ARE

Keywords: storeys, Japanese
From Question 10, we can easily find that answer C is correct: fitted loosely on top of each other. Now we look at other answers to check for sure
In paragraph 6, the last sentence, the writer states:  “The shinbashira, running up through a hole in the central of the building,constrained individual storeys from moving too far because, after moving  a certain distance, they banged into it, transmitting energy away along the column.” This means the floors could move away from the shinbashira, known as the central pillar, then banged into it. So it can be inferred that  the storeys couldn‟t be fastened to the central pillar as otherwise, they wouldn‟t have moved away a certain distance then banged into it.  So B is not correct. In paragraph 8, the writer says: ” Another strange feature of the Japanese pagoda is that, because of the building tapers,with each successive floor plan being smaller than the one below, none of the vertical pillars that carry the weight of the building is connected to its corresponding pillar above.”
This means floors are not connected to each other through weight, because none of the pillars carrying the weight is connected to its corresponding pillar. So D is not correct . No information relating to A can be found. However, in paragraph 8 we learn that:  “…the individual storeys of a Japanese pagoda…are not actually connected to each other.  They are simply stacked one on top of another like a pile of hats”.
=> ANSWER:    C

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 7 – TEST 2 – PASSAGE 1 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 2: THE TRUE COST OF FOOD

QUESTIONS 14-17 WHICH PARAGRAPH CONTAINS THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION ?

14. A COST INVOLVED IN PURIFYING DOMESTIC WATER

Keywords: cost, purifying, water
Skimming through the passage, it can be seen that information relating to “the cost ” is mainly in paragraph E. We don‟t need to know the meaning of “bug”. When the writer says ” removal of (something) from drinking water”, we can rely on ” drinking water”  to guess that we need to remove something “unhealthy”, so that the water can be “drink-able.”And this process of removal is called “purifying.” In paragraph E, the writer says: ” The costs included: …£23m for the removal of the bug cryptosporidium from drinking water by water companies; …”
+  bug :a common name used to refer to bacteria, parasites or viruses
+ purify = removal of the parasite in order to make drinking water clean
=> ANSWER:     E

15.  THE STAGES IN THE DEVELOPMENT OF THE FARMING INDUSTRY

Keywords: stages, farming
The words ” stages” can be related to the process of the development of the farming industry. Skimming through the whole passage, it can be noticed that in paragraph B lie a number of words indicating a “process” : first, then, then, and now. Particularly, the writer says : ” First mechanisation, then mass use of chemical fertiliser and pesticides, then….and now genetic engineering – the onward march of intensive farming has seemed unstoppable in the last…”
+ development = onward march
+ march =  steady forward movement or progression
=> ANSWER:     B

16. THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE HIDDEN COSTS

Keywords: term, hidden costs
In paragraph C, the writer explains: ” That is mainly because the costs of all this damage are what economists refer to as externalities: they are outside the main transaction…To many, the costs may not even appear to be financial at all, but merely aesthetic…” The costs that are outside the main transaction can be understood as hidden costs So the term here is “externalities”
=> ANSWER:     C

17. ONE EFFECT OF CHEMICALS ON WATER SOURCES

Keywords: effect, chemicals, water
Information relating to “effect” is mainly found in paragraph B.
In paragraph B, the writer says: ” Natural soil fertility is dropping … while the growth of algae is increasing  in lakes because of the fertiliser run-off”
+ effect corresponds to ” the growth of algae is increasing”
+ water corresponds to lakes
+ chemicals corresponds to fertiliser
+ fertiliser: a  kind of chemical added to soil or water to increase its productivity
=> ANSWER:     B

QUESTIONS 18-21 YES, NO, NOT GIVEN

18. SEVERAL SPECIES OF WILDLIFE IN THE BRITISH COUNTRYSIDE ARE DECLINING

Keywords: species of wildlife, British countryside, declining
In paragraph B, the writer says: “In Britain, for example, many of our best-loved farmland birds, such as the skylark, the grey partridge, the lapwing and the corn bunting, have vanished from huge stretches countryside, as have even…insects” In the text, the writer says many birds have vanished so it can be inferred that their numbers are declining
+ several species of wildlife corresponds to many farmland birds
+ vanish= disappear in a sudden/mysterious way.
+ decline = decrease in number
=> ANSWER:     YES

19.THE TASTE OF FOOD HAS DETERIORATED IN RECENT YEARS.

Keywords: taste, deteriorated, recent
A reference to the cost of food in recent years can be found in paragraph A. But no sentences indicate the quality of food, especially the taste.
=> ANSWER:   NOT GIVEN

20.THE FINANCIAL COSTS OF ENVIRONMENTAL DAMAGE ARE WIDELY RECOGNIZED.

Keywords: financial costs, enviromental, widely
In paragraph C, the writer says: ” To many, the costs may not even appear to be financial at all, but merely aesthetic- a terrible shame, but nothing to do with money.” The cost here is the cost of environmental damage as listed in paragraph B.
In paragraph C, the writer explains:  “That is mainly because the costs of all this damage are…” So it can be inferred that many people fail to make a connection between environmental damage, in turning the British countryside into a battlefield, with the price that they pay for food as consumers. Therefore the financial costs are not widely recognized.
=> ANSWER:     NO

21. ONE OF  THE COSTS CALCULATED BY PROFESSOR PRETTY WAS ILLNESS CAUSED BY FOOD.

Keywords: costs, Professor Pretty, illness caused by food
In paragraph E, on listing the costs according to Professor Pretty, the writer mentions : “… £169 m from food poisoning” Thus, because the use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides and the introduction of monocultures has resulted in the production of food which is harmful to human health, the costs of medical treatment for food poisoning have to be considered as part of the ‘true cost’ of food.
=> ANSWER:   YES

QUESTIONS 22-26  COMPLETE THE SUMMARY

22. PROFESSOR PRETTY CONCLUDES THAT OUR… ARE HIGHER THAN MOST PEOPLE REALISE, BECAUSE WE MAKE THREE DIFFERENT TYPES OF PAYMENT.

Keywords: our, Professor Pretty, higher, three different types of payment
From keywords, especially the words ” three types of payment”, we can skim through and infer that the content of the sentence is from paragraph E, where the writer says: ” Professor Pretty draws a simple but memorable conclusion from all this: our foodbills are actually threefold. We are paying for our supposedly cheaper food in three separate ways: once over the counter, secondly through our taxes… and thirdly to clean up the mess that modern farming leaves behind.”
+ higher corresponds to threefold = three times as much/ triple
+ conclude = draw a conclusion
+ three different types= three seperate ways
+ make payment = pay for
+ over the counter: in the shops
We need a noun here, something “ours” that is higher, so the word needed is ” foodbills”
=> ANSWER:   Foodbills

23. HE FEELS IT IS REALISTIC TO SUGGEST THAT BRITAIN SHOULD REDUCE ITS RELIANCE ON….

Keywords: realistic, Britain, reduce,reliance on
In paragraph F, the writer argues: ” Breaking away from industrial agriculture as the solution to hunger maybe very hard for some countries, but in Britain, where the immediate need to supply food is less urgent, and the costs and the damage of intensive farming have been clearly seen, it may be more feasible.” This means that Pretty feels that breaking away from industrial agriculture is realistic, as the need for food in Britain is less urgent, while the damage of intensive farming is more obvious.
+ reduce its reliance corresponds to break away from
+realistic corresponds to feasible = possible, likely
We need a noun here, for something which Britain should rely less on, or in other words, break away from. So the possible answer is industrial agriculture or intensive farming
=> ANSWER:     industrial agriculture/ intensive farming

24-25. ALTHOUGH MOST FARMERS WOULD BE UNABLE TO ADAPT TO…, PROFESSOR PRETTY WANTS THE GOVERNMENT TO INITIATE CHANGE BY ESTABLISHING WHAT HE REFERS TO AS A…

Keywords: farmers, unable to adapt to, government, change, he refers to as a
This is a suggestion of Professor Pretty, so we can guess that information we need to find is from the next paragraph. Specifically, in paragraph G, the writer states: ” Professor Pretty feels that organic farming would be too big a jump in thinking and in practices for many farmers.” This means that it will be difficult for many farmers to change to organic farming. Here we need a noun-something that many farmers would find difficult to adapt to. So the answer is  “organic farming”
=> ANSWER:   24. organic farming
Then in the next sentence, we find a “suggestion” of Professor Pretty: ” He is recommending the immediate introduction of a “Greener Food Standard”, which would push the market towards more sustainable environmental practices…”
+ introduction can be understood as “initiate change”
+ initiate = bring about, or cause to occur, some new change or policy.
We need a noun- something new that Professor Pretty suggests.So the answer is a “Greener Food Standard.”
=> ANSWER:    25.Greener Food Standard

26. HE FEEL THIS WOULD HELP TO CHANGE THE ATTITUDES OF BOTH …AND…

Keywords:  change, attitudes , both
In the next sentences in paragraph G, the writer says: ” It could go a long way, he says, to shifting consumers as well as farmers towards a more sustainable system of agriculture.” “It” here is the Greener Food Standard.
+ change = shift
+ the attitude can be understood as a more sustainable system of agriculture.
We need 2 nouns,  2 things/people whose attitudes should be changed as a result of the introduction of the new standard.  So the answer is consumers and farmers.
=> ANSWER:     26. consumers/ farmers

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 7 – TEST 2 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 3: MAKETE INTEGRATED RURAL TRANSPORT PROJECT

QUESTIONS 27-30 CHOOSE THE CORRECT HEADING

27. SECTION B

This section consists of 2 small paragraphs.In  the first sentence of paragraph 1, the writer states: ” When the project began, Makete District was virtually totally isolated during the rainy season” then he lists several problems. In the first sentence of paragraph 2, he says: ” Before solutions could be proposed, the problems had to be understood.” So we can infer that in this section, the writer is going to deal with finding what is the problem with transport. Therefore, the most suitable heading should be ii, identifying the main transport problems
+ identify the problem = understand the problem
=> ANSWER:   ii:identifying the main transport problems

28. SECTION C

In the first sentence of this section, the writer says:  “Having determined the main transport need, possible solutions were identified which might reduce the time and burden.” So we could guess that this section is about solutions. Then, in the following sentences, he goes into more detail about the “solutions”. During Phase II, from January to February 1991, a number of approaches were implemented in an effort to improve mobility and access to transport.” In paragraph 4 of Section C, the writer refers to various “means of transport” and the plan to use more donkeys and locally-made wheelbarrows. Looking back at the heading list, it can be seen that heading v contains keywords like: „improvement, mobility, transport‟, and its content matches the section‟s as well:  “Initial improvements in mobility and transport modes”
transport mode = means of transport
=> ANSWER:  v:  initial improvements in mobility and transport modes

29. SECTION E

In the first sentence of the section the writer argues : “It would have been easy to criticise the MIRTP for using in the early phases a top-down approach… but it was necessary to start the process from the level of the governmental authorities of the district.”
Here we have quite a long sentence and it is better to focus on the main clause. The author indicates that the process needs governmental authorities of the district to be involved from the beginning. Looking back at the heading list, the possible answers that contain keywords are
iv. Government authorities’s instructions
x. Cooperation of district officials
However, heading iv deals with “instructions”, while in the text the author mentions nothing  relating to instructions. On the other hand, heading x deals with “the cooperation” of district officials, which matches the content of the text:  “It would have been difficult to respond to the requests of villagers and other rural inhabitants without the support and understanding of district authorities.”
+ cooperation = support and understanding
+ officials = authorities
+ district officials = governmental authorities of the district
=> ANSWER:     x:  cooperation of district officials

30. SECTION F

This section consists of 2 small paragraphs. In the first paragraph,we can infer that it deals with the success of MIRTP through the keywords : ” result of dedicated work”. Then, in the second paragraph, the writer says: “The experiences from Makete will help this initiative, and Makete District will act as a reference for future work.” So it can be concluded that the writer implies that, due to its success, MIRTP could be a model for future work. The most suitable heading should be i. MIRTP as a future model
+ model =reference = something to look for information/ advice or to follow
+ a future model = a reference for future work
=> ANSWER:     i:  MIRTP as a future model

QUESTIONS  31-35 YES, NO, NOT GIVEN

31. MIRTP WAS DIVIDED INTO FIVE PHASES.

Keywords: MIRTP, five phases
Skimming through the passages, it can be seen that there are only 3 phases mentioned when talking about the MIRTP. Phase I is mentioned in Section B; Phase II in Sections C and D; Phase III is referred to in Section D.  The answer is, therefore, NO.
=> ANSWER:     NO

32. PRIOR TO THE START OF MIRTP THE MAKETE DISTRICT WAS ALMOST IN ACCESIBLE DURING THE RAINY SEASON

Keywords: prior to, Makete, inaccessible, rainy season
In the first sentence of Section B, the writer says:  “When the project began, Makete district was virtually totally isolated during the rainy season. The regional road was in such bad shape that access to the main towns was almost impossible for about three months of the year.”
+ almost = virtually
+isolated = inaccessible = without much contact with other places/people; difficult to reach
=> ANSWER:     YES

33.PHASE I OF MIRTP CONSISTED OF A SURVEY OF HOUSEHOLD EXPENDITURE ON TRANSPORT.

Keywords: Phase I, survey, household expenditure, transport
From the keyword ” phase I”, we can easily identify that the information needs to be found in paragraph 2 of Section B, where the writer says: “The socio-economic survey of more than 400 households in the district indicated that a household in Makete spent on average, seven hours a day on transporting themselves and their goods, a figure which seemed…Africa.” So this means that the survey is on the daily hours spent on transport by each household.The survey, therefore, was a survey of time expended – 7 hours per day – and not of money spent by each household.
+ expenditure on = spent on
=> ANSWER:    NO

34. THE SURVEY CONCLUDED THAT ONE-FIFTH OR 20% OF THE HOUSEHOLD TRANSPORT REQUIREMENT AS OUTSIDE THE LOCAL AREA.

Keywords: 20%, transport requirement, outside, local
In paragraph 2 of Section B, the writer says : “Interesting facts regarding transport were found: 95% was on foot; 80% was within the locality…” 80% was within the locality, which means that the other 20 % was out of the local area, in other words: 20% of transport was outside the local area.
+ local area = locality
=> ANSWER:    YES

35. MIRTP HOPED TO IMPROVE THE MOVEMENT OF GOODS FROM MAKETE DISTRICT TO THE COUNTRY’S CAPITAL.

Keywords: MIRTP, improve, movement of goods, capital
In section C,the writer argues:  “However, the difference from the conventional approach was that this time consideration was given to local transport needs outside the road network. This means that the aim of MIRTP is to make the transport of goods safer and less arduous by improving the paths, or in other words improve the movement of goods – their import and export – from Makete district. But the author does not mention where the goods will be transported to, and the capital of the country is nowhere referred to in the text .
+ movement =transport
=> ANSWER:     NOT GIVEN

QUESTIONS  36-39 COMPLETE EACH SENTENCE WITH THE CORRECT ENDING

36. CONSTRUCTION OF FOOTBRIDGES, STEPS AND HANDRAILS

Keywords: footbridges, steps, handrails
In Section C, the writer says : “Most goods were transported along the paths that provide short-cuts up and down the hillsides, but the paths were a real safety risk and made the journey on foot even more arduous. It made sense to improve the paths by building steps, handrails and footbridges.” On the other hand, skimming through the list given, it can be seen that  D. “Improved paths used for transport up and down hillsides” consists of words in the above text :paths, handrails and footbridges, improve, up and down hillsides. In addition, its content matches the content of the text, in particular: construction = building
=> ANSWER:     D:  improved paths used for transport up and down hillsides

37. FREQUENT BREAKDOWN OF BUSES AND TRUCKS IN MAKETE

Keywords: breakdown, buses, trucks
In section D, the writer argues: ” The efforts to improve the efficiency of the existing transport services were not very successful because most of the motorised vehicles in the district broke down and there were no resources to repair them.” So it can be inferred that the clause after because corresponds to the given content . We need to find the content which matches one in the other clause of this text.Skimming through the list, it can be seen that I. Hindered attempts to make the existing transport services more efficient matches.
+ motorised vehicles = buses and trucks
+ attempt = effort
+  make the existing transport services more efficient=improve the efficiency of the existing transport services
=> ANSWER: I:  hindered attempts to make the existing transport services more efficient

38. THE IMPROVEMENT OF SECONDARY ROADS AND PATHS

Keywords: improvement, secondary roads, paths
In section D, the writer says: ” Paths and secondary roads were improvedonly at the request of communities who were willing to participate in construction and maintenance.”
So we need to find the answer that matches the content of this sentence. The most suitable answer is G. „Was done only at the request of local people who were willing to lend a hand‟
+ local people = communities
+ participate in = lend a hand
=> ANSWER:    G:  was done only at the request of local people who were willing to lend a hand

39. THE ISOLATION OF MAKETE FOR PART OF THE YEAR

Keywords: isolation, part of the year
The word “isolation” leads us to look at section B, where the writer explains:”When the project began, Makete district was virtually totally isolated during the rainy season. The regional road was in such bad shape that access to the main towns was impossible for about three months of the year” This means that the road was in such a bad condition (=shape) that Makete district was isolated for part of the year, specifically during the rainy season which lasts about 3 months.  The results of improvements are referred to in Section D.  “The road improvements and accompanying maintenance system had helped make the district centre accessible throughout the year.”
+ part of the year = rainy season/ three months of the year
So the best answer to complete the sentence that matches the content of this text is  E.
=> ANSWER: E:  was no longer a problem once the roads had been improved

QUESTION 40.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PHRASES BEST DESCRIBES THE MAIN AIM OF READING PASSAGE 3?

Reading though the passage and from the above answers, we can see that the passage deals with the whole process of  MIRTP, from how it was implement and executed ( from section A-D) to the final positive result of it (Section E, F). So the best answer is B. To describe how MIRTP was implemented and how successful it was. A is not correct because although in section F, the writer considers MIRTP “as a reference for future work”, it doesn‟t mean MIRTP is needed in other countries. In fact, “future work” here refers to a transport program about to start in Tanzania: “The concept of intergrated rural transport is now well established in Tanzania, where a major program of rural transport is just about to start. This experiences from Makete will help this initiative,and Makete District will act as a reference for future work.” C is not correct because this the use of donkeys is just a small part of the content of the passage, not the main aim of the author D is not correct because clearly the author argues in Section F that MIRTP “will act as a reference for future work”, so it cannot have serious problems.
=> ANSWER:    B:  To describe how MIRTP was implemented and how successful it was.

1. yes
2. no
3. not given
4. yes
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. C
13. C
14. E
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. yes
19. not given
20. no
21. yes
22. food bills
23. intensive farming
24. organic farming
25. greener food standard
26. farmers and consumers
27. ii
28. v
29. x
30. 1
31. no
32. yes
33. no
34. yes
35. not given
36. D
37. I
38. G
39. E
40. B

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 7 READING TEST 1 ANSWERS


Cambridge IELTS 7 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 7 reading test 1 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: LET’S GO BATS

QUESTIONS 1-5 WHICH PARAGRAPH CONTAINS THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION

1. EXAMPLES OF WILDLIFE OTHER THAN BATS WHICH DO NOT RELY ON VISION TO NAVIGATE BY

Keywords: examples,other than bats, not rely on vision
In paragraph B, the writer states : ” …How to find their way  and find their prey in the absence of light.Bats are not the only creatures to face this difficulty today.Obviously….” Then the writer lists some names of insects and fishes in the following sentences.
– navigate = find their way ,find their prey : to make or find a course or way/ find position/ direction you need to go
– in the absence of light = do not rely on vision
– other than bats = bats are not the only
– other than = except/ different from
=> ANSWER: B

2. HOW EARLY MAMMALS AVOIDED DYING OUT

Keywords : how, mammals, avoided dying
In paragraph A, the writer says : “It is probable that the nocturnal trades go way back in the ancestry of all mammals.  In the time when …, our mammalian ancestors probably only managed to survive at all because they found ways of scraping a living at night” It can be inferred that finding ways of scraping a living at night is how early mammals avoided dying out – early mammals = our mammalian ancestors
– avoided dying out= managed to survive
– scraping a living=just finding enough food to eat and survive
=> ANSWER: A

3. WHY BATS HUNT IN THE DARK

Keywords: Why, hunt, dark
In paragraph A, the writer argues : ” They hunt at night,and cannot use light to help them…You might say that this is a problem of their own making, one that they could avoid…. But the daytime economy is already heavily exploited by other creatures such as birds” This explains that bats hunt in the dark due to the “heavily exploited economy” during the daytime when, for example, birds catch insects.
– in the dark=at night
=> ANSWER: A

4. HOW A PARTICULAR DISCOVERY HAS HELPED OUR UNDERSTANDING OF BATS

Keywords : how, discovery, understanding of bats
In paragraph E, the writer explains : ” But the underlying mathematical theories of radar and sonar are very similar, and much of our scientific understanding of the details of what bats are doing has come from applying radar theory to them.  The American zoologist, Donald Griffin, who was largely responsible for the discovery of sonar in bats, coined the term „echolocation‟ to cover both sonar and radar…” This means that radar theory helped our understanding of bats.
=> ANSWER: E

5. EARLY MILITARY USES OF ECHOLOCATION

Key words:  military uses, echolocation
In paragraph D, the writer says : ” After this technique had been invented, it was only a matter of time before weapons designers adapted it for the detection of submarines. Both sides in the Second World Warrelied heavily on these devices, under such codenames as Asdic (British) and Sonar…, which uses radio echoes rather than sound echoes.” This means that devices using radio echoes were used for military purposes, as they served in a war. The term „echolocation‟ was not known to the early pioneers, and was invented later, as the final paragraph explains.
=> ANSWER: D

QUESTIONS 6-9  COMPLETE THE SUMMARY

( Notice that from the title ” Facial Vison we can infer that information should be found in paragraph D.”)

6. IN FACT, THE SENSATION IS MORE SIMILAR TO THE WAY IN WHICH PAIN FROM A ….ARM OR LEG MIGHT BE FELT.

Keywords: sensation, similar, pain , arm or leg
In line 6 (paragraph D), the writer states : ” Experiments showed that, infact, facial vision is nothing to do with touch or the front of the face, although the sensation maybe referred to the sensation to the front of the face, like the referred pain in a phantom limb.”
– similar to=like
– leg/arm=limb
We need an adjective/ noun to modify “arm or leg “. In addition.” pain from a…arm or leg ”  is corresponding to ” pain in a phantom limb” in the text, adding that we see no ” arm” or “leg ” in the text. So it can be inferred that “arm or leg” = limb, and we need  ” phantom” to fill the gap.
=> ANSWER:   Phantom

7. THE ABILITY  ACTUALLY COMES FROM PERCEIVING … THROUGH EARS.

Keywords : ability, actually, perceiving, through ears
In the next sentence, the writer says : ” The sensation of facial vision, it turns out , really goes in through the ears.Blind people, without even being aware of the fact, are actually using echoes of their own footsteps…” This means that the sensation of facial vision, in fact, comes from using echoes through one‟s ears. ” The ability” refers to  ” the sensation of facial vision” .
=> ANSWER:    echoes

8. HOWEVER, EVEN BEFORE THIS WAS UNDERSTOOD, THE PRINCIPLE HAS BEEN APPLIED IN THE DESIGN OF INSTRUMENTS WHICH CALCULATED THE… OF THE SEABED.

Keywords : principle,instruments, calculated, seabed
In the next sentence, the writer explains : ” Before this was discovered, engineers had already built instruments to exploit the principle, for example, to measure the depth of the sea under a ship.”
+ understood = discovered
+ calculate = measure
+ seabed  = sea under a ship  : the floor of the sea/ocean
=> ANSWER:    depth

9. THIS WAS FOLLOWED BY A WARTIME APPLICATION  IN DEVICES FOR FINDING …

Keywords: wartime application, devices,  finding
In the next sentence, the writer says : ”  After this technique had been invented, it was only a matter of time before weapons designers adapted it for the detection of submarines.”
+ this was followed = after
+ wartime application= weapons designers adapted it
+ finding = detection
=> ANSWER:  submarines

QUESTIONS 10-13

10. LONG BEFORE THE INVENTION OF RADAR,…. HAD RESULTED IN A SOPHISTICATED RADAR-LIKE SYSTEM IN BATS.

Keywords: Long before,invention,  resulted in,  in bats
In paragraph  E, the first sentence, the writer says : ” The Sonar and Radar pioneers didn‟t know it then, but all the world now knows that bats, or rather natural selection working on bats, had perfected the system tens of millions of years earlier, and their ” radar ” achieves feats of detection and  navigation that would strike an engineer dumb with admiration. ” This means bats have a radar-like system due to natural selection.
+ the Sonar and Radar pioneers refer to the inventors of radar, corresponding to ” the invention of radar”
+ tens of millions of years earlier =  long before
+ sophisticated= clever and complicated in the way that it works or is presented
+ “natural selection perfected the system” ,so we can infer that the system was “sophisticated”
+ the writer puts “radar ” in quotation marks, indicating that the system is “radar-like”
=> ANSWER:   natural selection

11. RADAR IS AN INACCURATE TERM WHEN REFERRING TO BATS BECAUSE … ARE NOT USED IN THEIR NAVIGATION SYSTEM.

Keywords:  inaccurate, referring to bats, navigation system
In paragraph E, the writer argues : ”  It is technically incorrect to talk about bat ” radar”, since they do not use radio waves.
This means that bats actually don‟t have radar, because they do not use radio waves, while radar does.
+ inaccurate= incorrect
+ referring to = talk about
+ because =since
=> ANSWER:   radio waves

12. RADAR AND SONAR ARE BASED ON SIMILAR….

Keywords: radar and sonar, based, similar
In paragraph E, the writersays : ” But the underlying mathematical theories of radar  and sonar are very similar,…”
This means that radar and sonar are based on mathematical theories which are almost the same. So it can be inferred that radar and sonar are based on similar mathematical theories
+ underlying = basic, fundamental
=> ANSWER:  mathematical theories

13.THE WORD ” ECHOLOCATION ” WAS FIRST USED BY SOMEONE WORKING AS A …

Keywords: echolocation, first, someone
In paragraph E, the writer says: ”  The American zoologistDonald Griffin, who was largely responsible for the …, coined the term ” echolocation” to cover both sonar and radar,…”
+ first used=coined
=> ANSWER:  zoologist

PASSAGE 2: MAKING EVERY DROP COUNT

QUESTIONS 14-20 CHOOSE THE CORRECT HEADING

14. PARAGRAPH A

Reading the first sentence, ” The history of human civilisation is entwined with the history of the ways we have learned to manipulate water resources”, we could anticipate that the writer is going to talk about how water is supplied. Skimming through the next sentences, we see words like ” water was brought…”,  “the Roman Empire”, “supplied occupants of Rome”. Therefore, the most suitable heading for this paragraph should be xi: a description of ancient water supplies.
+  ancient: belonging to a period of history that is thousands of years in the past corresponding to the Roman Empire, occupants of Rome, history
+ description: corresponds to ” the way”
+ water supplies corresponds to ” manipulate water resources “, supplied occupants” manipulate : to control or use something in a skilful way
=> ANSWER: xi a description of ancient water supplies.
Example: Paragraph B
In the first sentence the writer says : ” During the industrial revolution and population explosion of the 19th   and 20th  centuries, the demand for water rose dramatically.” Then he continues: “Unprecedented construction of tens of ….brought great benefits to hundreds of millions of people”. Here we should focus on the bold words to realise that the main content of the text is that the increasing demand of water has been met. Looking back at the heading list, the most suitable heading should be iii, How a global challenge was met. It can be inferred that “global challenge” here corresponds to “the demand for water rose dramatically”
=> ANSWER:   iii how a global challenge was met.

15. PARAGRAPH C

The main points in this paragraph relate to dangers to health as the result of a lack of clean water. The writer says : “…more than one billion people lack access to clean drinking water; some two and a half billion do not have adequate sanitation services.  Preventable water-related diseases kill an estimated 10,000 to 20,000 children every day…‟ Therefore, the most suitable heading should be vii:The relevance to health
=> ANSWER:      vii the relevance to health

16. PARAGRAPH D

In the first sentence, the writer states: ”  The consequences of our water policies extend beyond jeopardising human health.”From the bold words, we can infer that the writer is going to talk about negative results/effects of water policies, not simply in terms of the effects of these policies on human health.  Looking back at the list, the possible heading should be either v, „Environmental effects‟or  i, „Scientists‟call for a revision of policy‟.  Looking more closely at the text, we see ” …more than 20%  of all freshwater fish species are now threatened or endangered because dams and water withdrawals have destroyed the free-flowing river ecosystems where they thrive. Certain irrigation practices degrade soil quality…” So the heading is v, Enviromental effects
+ effects=consequences
=> ANSWER:     v Environmental effects

17. PARAGRAPH E

In the first sentence, the writer says: ” At the outset of the new millennium, however, the way resource planners think about water is beginning to change” . In the text we see that in the following sentences, the writer indicates ” some water  experts are now demanding that…”, “This shift in philosophy…” From the bold words we can calculate that the text mainly discusses the demand by water experts to change something related to water policy. Therefore, the most suitable heading should be i, Scientists‟ call for a revision of policy
+ call=demanding
Scientists corresponds to  resource planners, water experts
Revision corresponds to this shift in philosophy, change
=> ANSWER:      i Scientists‟ call for a revision of policy

18. PARAGRAPH F

In the first sentence, the writer says : ” Fortunately- and unexpectedly- the demand for water is not rising as rapidly as some predicted”.  So we can infer that the text is possibly going to talk about a downward trend in water demand. In the text, we see words like “slowed” , “demand has actually fallen.” Therefore, the most suitable heading should be ix, A surprising downward trend in demand for water
+ surprising=unexpectedly
=> ANSWER:    ix A surprising downward trend in demand for water

19. PARAGRAPH G

In the first sentence, the writer poses  a question in response to the final sentence in paragraph F [demand for water has fallen in some parts of the world]. ” What explains this remarkable turn of events ?” , indicating that he is going to talk about the cause for the downward trend in water demand. He then discusses two factors:  people now use water more efficiently and “…communities are now re-thinking their priorities for water use. Therefore the most suitable heading should be ii, An explanation for reduced water use
=> ANSWER:      ii An explanation for reduced water use

20. PARAGRAPH H

In the first sentence, the  writer says :”  On the other hand, aqueducts and other kinds of infrustructure will still have to be built, particularly in developing countries where basic human needs have not been met.  But such projects must be built to higher specifications and with more accountability to local people and their environment than in the past”. In these ways, the new projects should have higher standards in order to protect local people and their environment. Therefore the most suitable heading should be x, The need to raise standards. Must be corresponds to the need Built to higher specifications corresponds to raise standards
=> ANSWER:    x  The need to raise standards

QUESTIONS 21-26 YES, NO, NOT GIVEN

21. WATER USE PER PERSON IS HIGHER IN THE INDUSTRIAL WORLD THAN IT WAS IN ANCIENT ROME

Keywords : Water use per person, higher, industrial world, Ancient Rome
In paragraph A, the last sentence, the writer says: ” At the height of the Roman Empire,…, supplied the occupants of Rome with as much water per person as is provided in many parts of the industrial world today.”  Thus, people in ancient Rome used as much water as people in the industrial world now.
=> ANSWER:      NO

22. FEEDING INCREASING POPULATIONS IS POSSIBLE DUE PRIMARILY TO IMPROVED IRRIGATION SYSTEMS.

Keywords:  Feeding, populations, irrigation systems
In paragraph B, the writer explains: ” Food production has kept pace with soaring populations mainly because of the expansion of artificial irrigation systems that make possible the growth of 40% of the world’s food.” This means that food production still manages to supply the increasing population because irrigation systems help in the production of more food.
+ increasing = soaring
+ due primarily to= mainly because of
+improved irrigation systems = expansion of artificial irrigation systems
=> ANSWER:    YES

23. MODERN WATER SYSTEMS IMITATE THOSE OF THE ANCIENT GREEKS AND ROMANS

Keywords: Modern, imitate, ancient Greeks and Romans
From these key words, it can be inferred that description of water systems could only be found in paragraph C.   However, we are only told that “…half of the world‟s population still suffers, with water services inferior to those available to the ancient Greeks and Romans”.  Whether these modern water systems copy those of ancient Greece and Rome is not stated.
=> ANSWER:     NOT GIVEN

24. INDUSTRIAL GROWTH IS INCREASING THE OVERALL DEMAND FOR WATER

Keywords: Industrial, increasing, demand for water
In paragraph F , the writer argues: ” Although population, industrial output and economic
productivity have continued to soar in developed nations, the rate at which people withdraw water from aquifers, rivers and lakes has slowed.” This means that that industrial growth is not increasing the demand for water. In fact, the demand has slowed.  “And in a few parts of the world, demand has fallen”.
+ increasing corresponds to continued to soar
+ demand for water corresponds to the rate at which people withdraw water from…
=> ANSWER:      NO

25. MODERN TECHNOLOGIES HAVE LED TO A REDUCTION IN DOMESTIC WATER CONSUMPTION

Keywords: modern technologies, reduction, domestic water consumption
In paragraph G, the writer says : ” But since 1980, the amount of water consumed per person has actually decreased, thanks to a range of new technologies that help to conserve water in homes and industry.”
+ water consumption = the amount of water consumed
+ reduction corresponds to decrease
+ new technologies = modern technologies
+ domestic=in homes
=> ANSWER:     YES

26. IN THE FUTURE, GOVERNMENTS SHOULD MAINTAIN OWNERSHIP OF WATER INFRASTRUCTURES.

Keywords: future, government, ownership, water infrastructures
Information relating to government and water infrastructures can only be found in paragraphs H and E.
In paragraph E, the writer just states: “Some water experts are now demanding that existing infrastructure be used in smarter ways rather than building new facilities.”  There is nothing about ownership.  In paragraph H:  “…dams, aqueducts and other kinds of infrastructure will still have to be built….”, but again there is nothing related to ownership. Therefore, there is no information indicating whether governments should maintain ownership of water infrastructures or not.

=> ANSWER:   NOT GIVEN

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 7 – TEST 1 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 3: EDUCATING PSYCHE

QUESTIONS  27 -30 CHOOSE THE CORRECT LETTER

27. THE BOOK EDUCATING PSYCHE IS MAINLY CONCERNED WITH

Keywords: Educating Psyche, mainly
In the first paragraph,the writer says: ” Educating Psyche by Bernie Neville is a book which looks at radical new approaches to learning, describing the effect of emotion, imagination and the unconscious on learning.” So in can be inferred that the main content of the book is about new approaches to learning. The possible answers that contain keywords relating to “approaches” is B. A particular technique for learning based on emotions and D. Ways of learning which are not traditional. However, answer B focuses only one technique – based on emotions – while according to the above text, the book deals not only with emotions but also the effect of imagination and the unconscious on learning.
Therefore the answer is D: ways of learning which are not traditional.
+ ways of learning= approaches to learning =techniques for learning
+ not traditional = new
=> ANSWER:     D

28. LOZANOV‟S THEORY CLAIMS THAT, WHEN WE TRY TO REMEMBER THINGS,

Keywords: Lozanov”s theory, remember
In paragraph 2, the writer explains : ”  Lozanov‟s instructional technique is based on the evidence that the  connections made in the brain through unconscious processing are more durable than those made through conscious processing”. Then he continues to explain more  about the theory  ” …we know from our experience that we often remember what we have perceived peripherally, long after we have forgotten what we set out to learn.” This means that when we try to remember things, our brains find it difficult to remember connections between the things which we want to learn, but find it easier to recall connections between the unimportant things that we do not try to learn. Therefore the answer is A: unimportant details are easiest to recall
+ unimportant details can be understood as what we have perceived peripherally
+ unimportant= peripheral
+ remember = recall
+ unimportant details stay longer in our memory than important ones, even when we perceive them peripherally, so they are easiest to recall.
=> ANSWER:      A

29. IN THIS PASSAGE, THE AUTHOR USES THE EXAMPLES OF A BOOK AND A LECTURE TO ILLUSTRATE THAT

Keywords: examples, book, lecture
In paragraph 2 the writer says : ” If we think of a book we studied months or years ago, we find it easier  to recall peripheral details…than the content on which we were concentrating. If we think of a lecture we listened to with great concentration,we will recall the lecturer’s appearance and mannerism…much more easily than the ideas we went to learn.” Both examples indicate that we recall unimportant things more easily than we recall things we intend to learn.  This supports Lozanov’s theory. Therefore, these examples support the idea that his theory is valid.
So the answer is B: His theory about methods of learning is valid
=> ANSWER:     B

30. LOZANOV CLAIMS THAT TEACHERS SHOULD TRAIN STUDENTS TO

Keywords: Lozanov, teacher, train,students
In paragraph 3, the writer states:  “Lozanovtherefore made indirect instruction (suggestion) central to his teaching system.   In suggestopedia, as he called his method, consciousness is shifted away from the curriculum to focus on something peripheral. The curriculum then become peripheral and is dealt with by the reserve capacity of the brain.”
This means that he suggests making the curriculum peripheral by focusing on something else, in order to remember the curriculum better.
Therefore the most suitable answer is C: Think about something other than the curriculum content.
+ think about=focus on
=> ANSWER:     C

QUESTIONS 31-36 TRUE/ FALSE / NOT GIVEN

31. IN THE EXAMPLES OF SUGGESTOPEDIC TEACHING IN THE FOURTH PARAGRAPH, THE ONLY VARIABLE THAT CHANGES IS THE MUSIC.

Keywords: suggestopedic teaching, variable, changes, music
In the paragraph 4, the writer says: “… In the first part, the music is classical and the teacher reads the text slowly and solemnly, with attention to the dynamic of the music”. ” In the second part, they listen to baroque music while the teacher reads the text in a normal speaking voice.”  In addition, the paragraph also tells us that in the first part, students “follow the text in their books..” but in the second part “they have their books closed”.
So, the music is only one difference, there are two other variables.
=> ANSWER:      FALSE

32. PRIOR TO THE SUGGESTOPEDIA CLASS, STUDENTS ARE MADE AWARE THAT THE LANGUAGE EXPERIENCE WILL BE DEMANDING

Keywords: Prior to, suggestopedia, language experience, demanding
In paragraph 5, the writer says: ” Before hand, the students have been carefully prepared for the language learning experience.  Through meeting with the staff and satisfied students they develop the expectation that learning will be easy and pleasant…”
This means that the students think that the language experience will not require much effort.
+ Prior to=Before hand
=> ANSWER:      FALSE

33. IN THE FOLLOW-UP CLASS, THE TEACHING ACTIVITIES ARE SIMILAR TO THOSE USED  IN CONVENTIONAL CLASSES.

Keywords: follow-up class, activities, similar, conventional class
In paragraph 6, the writer states: “There is a follow-upclass at which the students are stimulated to recall the material presented.  The students… focus on using the language to communicate (e.g. through games or improvised dramatisations).  Such methods are not unusual in language teaching.”
+  teaching activities = methods
+ similar to = not unusual
=> ANSWER:     TRUE

34. AS AN INDIRECT BENEFIT, STUDENTS NOTICE IMPROVEMENTS IN THEIR MEMORY

Key words : benefit, students, improvement, memory
Information relating to the “benefit” of the method for students can only be found in paragraph 6.

However, the writer just mentions that the students can learn more words: “…students can regularly learn 1000 new words of a foreign language during a suggestopedic session.There is no mention of any benefit to the memory of students. => ANSWER:     NOT GIVEN

35. TEACHERS SAY THEY PREFER SUGGESTOPEDIA TO TRADITIONAL APPROACHES TO LANGUAGE TEACHING.

Keywords: Teachers, prefer, suggestopedia, traditional
Information relating to suggestopedia and traditional approaches can only be found in paragraph 6 and in the final paragraph.However, in paragraph 6 we learn only the task of the teacher in the suggestopedia approach.  In the last paragraph, we learn that “…few teachers are able to emulate the spectacular results of Lozanov..”  There is no reference to which approach teachers prefer.
=> ANSWER:    NOT GIVEN

36. STUDENTS IN A SUGGESTOPEDIA CLASS RETAIN MORE NEW VOCABULARY THAN THOSE IN ORDINARY CLASSES.

Keywords: suggestopedia, retain, more new vocabulary, ordinary
In paragraph  6, the last sentence, the writer says: ” Another difference from conventional teaching is the evidence that students can regularly learn 1000 new words of a foreign language during a suggestopedic session, as well as grammar and idiom.” Therefore, the suggestion is that this total of 1000 words is more than they would learn in an ordinary class.
+ ordinary = conventional
+ retain = learn
=> ANSWER:      TRUE

QUESTIONS 37-40 COMPLETE THE SUMMARY USING THE LIST OF WORDS BELOW

37-38. HOWEVER, LOZANOV ADMITS THAT A CERTAIN AMOUNT OF… IS NECCESSARY IN ORDER TO CONVINCE STUDENTS, EVEN IF THIS IS JUST A…

Keywords: Lozanove admits, amount, necessary,
In paragraph 7, the writer says: “Lozanovac knowledges that the ritual surrounding suggestion in his own system is also a placebo, but maintains that without such a placebo people are unable or afraid to tap the reserve capacity of their brain. Like any placebo, it must be dispensed with authority to be effective.” This means that ritual is necessary for making students believe that the method is effective.  On the other hand, ritual is also a placebo.  If students are not convinced, the writer explains in the last paragraph that:  “We can, perhaps, attribute mediocre results to an inadequate placebo effect.  The students…are often not motivated to learn through this method.  They do not have enough „faith‟.  They do not see it as „real teaching‟..”
+ admit = acknowledge
=> ANSWER:     37. F: (ritual)                    38.H:(placebo)

39-40.  ALTHOUGH LOZANOV‟S METHOD HAS BECOME QUITE….., THE RESULTS OF MOST OTHER TEACHERS USING THIS METHOD HAVE BEEN…

Keywords:  Lozanov’s method, results, other teachers
In the last paragraph, the writerstates: ” Whilesuggestopedia has gained some notoriety through success in the teaching of modern languages, few teachers are able to emulate the spectacular results of Lozanov and his associates.” This means that,  although Lozanov’s method is successful,the results obtained by most of the teachers using his method have not been very good/spectacular. Here we need 2 adjectives, one to describe Lozanov‟s “method”, and the other for “the results.”
+ become well known=gain notoriety
=> ANSWER:      39. K: (well known)
40.G:(unspectarcular)

1. B
2. A
3. A
4. E
5. D
6. phantom
7. echoes
8. depth
9. submarines
10. natural selection
11. radio waves
12. mathematical theories
13. zoologist
14. xi
15. vii
16. v
17. i
18. ix
19. ii
20. x
21. no
22. yes
23. not given
24. no
25. yes
26. not given
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. false
32. false
33. true
34. not given
35. not given
36. true
37. F
38. H
39. K
40. G

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 READING TEST 4 ANSWERS


Cambridge IELTS 6 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 6 reading test 4 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: DOCTORING SALES

QUESTIONS 1-7:  CHOOSE THE CORRECT HEADING FOR EACH PARAGRAPH FROM THE LIST OF HEADINGS BELOW.

1.PARAGRAPH A

The paragraph gives an example of a specific situation when a sales rep, Kim Schaefer, went to a medical center and a physician said to her: “The last rep offered me a trip to Florida. What do you have? “.

So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “An example of what doctors expect from drug companies”

=> ANSWER: v

2.PARAGRAPH B

This paragraph gives examples of some kinds of gifts that a pharmaceutical company can offer to doctors. For example, “a pair of tickets for a NY musical”, “a car trunk full of promotional gifts and gadgets”, “a budget that could buy lunches and dinners for a smell county”, “$200”, a few $1000 honoraria to offer. So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “Gifts include financial incentives”

=> ANSWER: vi

3.PARAGRAPH C

In this paragraph, the writer points out some bodies that are to blame for the “escalating extravagance of pharmaceutical marketing”:  “sales people”, “doctors” and the “industry”. So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “Who is responsible for the increase in promotions?”

=> ANSWER: iii

4.PARAGRAPH D

This paragraph reports on the advantages of drug promotion, including “provide much-needed information and education to physicians”, “primary sources of drug education for healthcare givers”, “sales people become specialists in one drug or group of drugs”. So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “The positive side of drugs promotion”

=> ANSWER: ix

5.PARAGRAPH E

The main idea of this paragraph is that although a huge amount of money is spent on drug promotion, it’s hard to tell if the money is well spent or not. To be more specific, the writer also gives an example of a doctor who has received gifts from those companies, but this fact does not influence his decision in prescribing medicine. So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “Not all doctors are persuaded”

=> ANSWER:  i

6.PARAGRAPH F

This paragraph states that a study conducted by the University of Washington has shown the effectiveness of using free drug samples to influence doctors‟ prescription habits. “The conclusion was that the availability of samples led them to dispense and prescribe drugs that differed from their preferred drug choice.” So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “Research shows that promotion works”

+ research = a study

=> ANSWER: vii

7.PARAGRAPH G

The main idea of this paragraph is that “patients are the ones who pay – in the form of sky-rocketing prescription prices” and that pharmaceutical companies will continue to find ways to increase sales and make profits. So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “Who really pays for doctors‟ free gifts?”

=> ANSWER:: x

QUESTIONS 8-13:  YES/NO/NOT GIVEN

 8.SALES REPS LIKE KIM SCHAEFER WORK TO A VERY LIMITED BUDGET

Keywords: sales rep, Kim Schaefer, budget

In paragraphs A and B, in which Kim Schaefer is mentioned, the writer gives some examples of gifts that sales reps can offer to doctors. These gifts might include: “a trip to Florida”, “a pair of tickets for a NY musical”, “a budget that could buy lunches and dinners for a small country”, “$1000 honoraria”, etc.  So the budget for sales reps is actually huge, not limited.

=> ANSWER: NO

9.KIM SCHAEFER‟S MARKETING TECHNIQUE MAY BE OPEN TO CRITICISM ON MORAL GROUNDS

Keywords: marketing technique, criticism, moral grounds

It is mentioned in paragraph C that “selling pharmaceuticals is a daily exercise in ethical judgement” and sales reps “work in an industry highly criticized for its sales and marketing practices”.

+ moral grounds = ethical judgement

+ marketing technique = marketing practices

=> ANSWER: YES

10.THE INFORMATION PROVIDED BY DRUG COMPANIES IS OF LITTLE USE TO DOCTORS

Keywords: information, drug companies, little use

In paragraph D, it is written that “Sales people provide much-needed information and education for physicians. In much cases the glossy brochures, article reprints and prescriptions they deliver are primary sources of drug education for healthcare givers”.  So, in fact, the information provided by drug companies is useful for doctors.

=> ANSWER: NO

11.EVIDENCE OF DRUG PROMOTION IS CLEARLY VISIBLE IN THE HEALTHCARE ENVIRONMENT

Keywords: evidence, clearly visible, healthcare environment

In paragraph E, the writer states that: “Rarely do patients watch a doctor write with a pen that isn‟t emblazoned with a drug’s name, or see a nurse use a tablet not bearing a pharmaceutical company’s logo.”  So it is clear that promotional products can be easily seen in the healthcare environment.

=> ANSWER: YES

12.THE DRUG COMPANIES MAY GIVE FREE DRUG SAMPLES TO PATIENTS WITHOUT DOCTORS‟ PRESCRIPTIONS

Keywords: drug companies, free drug samples, without doctor‟s prescriptions

In paragraph F, the writer‟s idea is that free samples of drugs is “the most effective way of getting doctors and patients to become loyal to a product” and can affect “what physicians prescribe”, but there is no information about drug companies giving drug samples directly to patients.

=> ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

13.IT IS LEGITIMATE FOR DRUG COMPANIES TO MAKE MONEY

Keywords: legitimate, drug companies, make money

In the last paragraph, it is written that “In the end the fact remains that pharmaceutical companies have every right to make a profit”.

+ drug companies = pharmaceutical companies

+ make money = make a profit

=> ANSWER: YES

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 – TEST 4 – PASSAGE 1 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 2: DO LITERATE WOMEN MAKE BETTER MOTHERS?

QUESTIONS 14-18:  COMPLETE THE SUMMARY USING THE LIST OF WORDS

14.THE  NICARAGUAN  NATIONAL  LITERACY  CRUSADE  AIMED  TO  TEACH  LARGE  NUMBERS  OF  ILLITERATE…  TO READ AND WRITE.

Keywords: Nicaraguan National Literacy Crusade, large numbers, illiterate

Paragraph 3 refers to a National Literacy Crusade (which can be referred to as the Nicaraguan National Literacy Crusade) and “about 300,000 illiterate adults… had learnt how to read, write and use numbers.”  The word “adults” here means both “men and women”.

+ illiterate = not able to read or write

=> ANSWER: B

15.PUBLIC  HEALTH  EXPERTS  HAVE  KNOWN  FOR  MANY  YEARS  THAT  THERE  IS  A  CONNECTION  BETWEEN  CHILD HEALTH AND…

Keywords: Public health experts, many years, connection, child health

In the first paragraph, it is written that “Children in developing countries are healthier and more likely to survive past the age of 5 when their mothers can read and write. Experts in public health accepted this idea decades ago…”. “Mothers can read and write” can be referred to as “literate mothers” => generally speaking, “maternal literacy”.

=> ANSWER: F

16.HOWEVER, IT HAS NOT PREVIOUSLY BEEN KNOWN WHETHER THESE TWO FACTORS WERE DIRECTLY LINKED OR NOT. THIS QUESTION HAS BEEN INVESTIGATED BY… IN NICARAGUA.

Keywords: investigate, in Nicaragua

In paragraph 4, the writer mentions that “researchers from the Liverpool School of Tropical Medicine, the Central American Institute of Health in Nicaragua, the National Autonomous University of Nicaragua and the Costa Rican Institute of Health interviewed…”. Therefore, the research was conducted by “an international research team”.

=> ANSWER: C

17.A RESULT, FACTORS SUCH AS… AND ATTITUDES TO CHILDREN HAVE BEEN ELIMINATED

Keywords: factors, attitudes to children, eliminated

In paragraph 2, it is stated that in a “long-term study carried out in Nicaragua”, factors such as “the fact that a woman has had an education may simply indicate her family‟s wealth or that it values its children more highly” were eliminated. “Value children more highly” can be referred to as “attitudes to children”, so the other factor is “family wealth”.

=> ANSWER: J

18.AND IT HAS BEEN SHOWN THAT….. CAN IN ITSELF IMPROVE INFANT HEALTH AND SURVIVAL.

Keywords: infant health, survival, improve

In paragraph 2, we are told the factor which can improve children‟s health and survival:  “…teaching reading to poor adult women, who would otherwise have remained illiterate,  has a direct effect on their children‟s  health and survival.”  So, the infants of mothers who are literate, have better chances of having good health and surviving.  The answer is: maternal literacy.

=> ANSWER: F

QUESTIONS 19-24:   YES/NO/NOT GIVEN

19.ABOUT A THOUSAND OF THE WOMEN INTERVIEWED BY THE RESEARCHERS  HAD LEARNT TO  READ  WHEN THEY WERE CHILDREN

Keywords: a thousand women, interviewed, learnt to read, children

In paragraph 4, it is stated that the researchers “interviewed 3,000 women, some of whom had learnt to read as children…”, but the actual number of these women is not given.

=> ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

20.BEFORE THE NATIONAL LITERACY CRUSADE , ILLITERATE WOMEN HAD APPROXIMATELY THE SAME LEVELS OF INFANT MORTALITY AS THOSE WHO HAD LEARNT TO READ IN PRIMARY SCHOOL

Keywords: before, illiterate women, same levels, infant mortality, primary school

In paragraph 5: “In the late 1970s, the infant mortality rate for the children of illiterate mothers was around 110 deaths per 1000 live births… For women educated in primary school, however, the infant mortality rate was significantly lower, at 80 per 1000.” So the levels of infant mortality are different.

+ infants = very young children

=> ANSWER: NO

21.BEFORE  AND  AFTER  THE  NATIONAL  LITERACY  CRUSADE,  THE  CHILD  MORTALITY  RATE  FOR  THE  ILLITERATE WOMEN STAYED AT ABOUT 110 DEATHS FOR EACH THOUSAND LIVE BIRTHS.

Keywords: before and after, child mortality rate, illiterate, 110

In paragraph 5, it is written that “the infant mortality rate for the children of illiterate mothers was around 110 deaths per 1000 live births”, and in paragraph 6, it is written that “after the…Crusade had ended, the infant mortality figures for those who remained illiterate… remained more or less unchanged”. So the rate remained at 110 per thousand.

=> ANSWER: YES

22.THE WOMEN WHO HAD LEARNT TO READ THROUGH THE NATIONAL LITERACY CRUSADE SHOWED THE GREATEST CHANGE IN INFANT MORTALITY LEVELS

Keywords: learnt to read, National Literacy Crusade, greatest change

In the 6th paragraph, it is written that “For those women who learnt to read through the campaign, the infant mortality rate was 84 per thousand, an impressive 21 points lower than those women who were still illiterate”, whereas the rates for “those who remained illiterate and for those educated in primary school remained more or less unchanged”. So it is clear that women who had learnt through the campaign showed the greatest change.

=> ANSWER: YES

23.THE WOMEN WHO HAD LEARNT TO READ THROUGH THE NATIONAL LITERACY CRUSADE HAD THE LOWEST RATES OF CHILD MORTALITY

Keywords: learnt to read through the National Literacy Crusade, lowest rate

“For those women who learnt to read through the campaign, the infant mortality rate was 84 per thousand” (6th paragraph). For women educated in primary school, the rate before the Crusade was “80 per thousand” (5   paragraph) and it “remained more or less unchanged” (6th paragraph).  So the women educated in primary school had the lowest rates of child mortality,  not

women who had learnt to read through the National Literacy Crusade.

=> ANSWER: NO

24.AFTER THE NATIONAL LITERACY CRUSADE, THE CHILDREN OF THE WOMEN WHO REMAINED ILLITERATE WERE FOUND TO BE SEVERELY MALNOURISHED.

Keywords: after, children, women who remained illiterate, severely malnourished

In the 6th paragraph, the writer says that “The children of the newly-literate mothers were also better nourished than those of women who could not read”, but there is no information indicating that those children were severely malnourished.

=> ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

QUESTIONS 25 AND 26:

QUESTION 25-26. WHICH TWO IMPORTANT IMPLICATIONS DRAWN FROM THE NICARAGUAN STUDY ARE MENTIONED BY THE WRITER OF THE PASSAGE?

  1. It is better to educate mature women than young girls
  2. Similar campaigns in other countries would be equally successful
  3. The effects of maternal literacy programmes can be seen very quickly
  4. Improving child health can quickly affect a country‟s economy
  5. Money spent on female education will improve child health

Look at the last 3 paragraphs because paragraphs 8, 9 and 10 start with “The Nicaraguan study may have important implications…”.   “…there is increasing evidence that female education,  at any age, is „an important health intervention in its own right‟” => so A is wrong. “..education  budgets  in  developing  countries  should  be  increased,  not  just  to  help  their economies  but  also  to  improve  child  health”  =>  no  relationship  between  child  health  and country‟s economy => D is wrong and E is right.  “…we   thought   that   even   if   we   started   educating   girls   today,   we‟d   have   to   wait   a generation  for  the  pay-off.  The  Nicaraguan  study  suggests  we  may  be  able  to  bypass that.” => it means we don‟t need to wait for that long, the effects can be seen quickly => so C is right.  “Pay-off” means an advantage or a reward from something you have done, here the writer refers to  the beneficial effects of maternal literacy programmes. “Bypass” here means to reduce the necessary time to get something done quickly, or to be more specific, to see the effects.  “similar campaigns elsewhere might not work as well” => B is wrong

=> ANSWER: C & E

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 – TEST 4 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 3: CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 – TEST 4 – PASSAGE 3

QUESTIONS 27-30: CHOOSE THE CORRECT HEADING FOR SECTIONS A-D

27.SECTION A

In the first section, the writer mentions the result of the survey he conducted into bullying in British schools: “… in British primary schools up to a quarter of pupils reported experience of bullying, which in about one in ten cases was persistent. There was less bullying in secondary schools..” So the correct heading for this section is “Research into how common bullying is in British schools”.

=> ANSWER: iv

28.SECTION B

This section mainly indicates the negative effects of bullying on children. To be more specific, it can make children “feel unworthy and depressed”, “even lead to suicide”, “experience difficulties with interpersonal relationships as adults”, “grow up to be physically violent and convicted of anti-social offences” So the correct heading for this section is: “The effect of bullying on the children involved”

=> ANSWER: vi

29.SECTION C

This section describes how schools react when being asked about bullying. Some often “deny the problem”.  “Fortunately more schools are now saying: There is not much bullying here, but when it occurs we have a clear policy for dealing with it”. So the correct heading for this section is: “The reaction from schools to enquiries about bullying”

=> ANSWER: v

30.SECTION D

This paragraph is about “3 factors involved in this change”. “This change” here is the fact that more schools admit that bullying is happening at their schools. The three factors include “an awareness of the severity of the problem”, the availability of “a number of resources to help tackle bullying” and “evidence that these materials work and that schools can achieve something”. So the correct heading for this section is “Developments that have led to a new approach by schools”.

+ a new approach = a change

=> ANSWER: vii

QUESTIONS 31 -34:  CHOOSE THE CORRECT LETTER

31.A RECENT SURVEY FOUND THAT IN BRITISH SECONDARY SCHOOLS

Keywords: survey, secondary schools

In Section A, it is written that “There was less bullying in secondary schools”, and we can understand that this means less bullying than in primary schools, because previously the writer mentions the situation in primary schools. So the right answer is: “there was less bullying than in primary schools”.

=> ANSWER: B

32.CHILDREN WHO ARE BULLIED

Keyword: bullied

In Section B, it is written that: “Victimised pupils are more likely to experience difficulties with interpersonal relationship as adults” (not “with adults”) and “more likely to grow up to be physically violent” => so D is right, B and C are wrong. There is no suicide rate mentioned, so A is wrong.  D:  “..may have difficulty forming relationships in later life.”

+ bullied = victimized

=> ANSWER: D

33.THE WRITER THINKS THAT THE DECLARATION “THERE IS NO BULLYING AT THIS SCHOOL”

Keywords: “there is no bullying at this school”

In Section C, it is written that “Until recently, not much was known about the topic” (topic here is bullying) and little help was available to teachers to deal with bullying.”  In Section D, the writer tells us that now there is “an awareness of the severity of the problem” and “a number of resources to help tackle bullying” to help schools to change their approach to bullying. So it is clear that the declaration, “there is no bullying at this school”, reflected a lack of knowledge and resources.

+ a lack of knowledge = not much was known

+ a lack of resources = little help was available

=> ANSWER: D

34.WHAT WERE THE FINDINGS OF RESEARCH CARRIED OUT IN NORWAY?

Keywords: findings, Norway

In Section D, it is written that “In Norway, after an intervention campaign was introduced, an evaluation of 42 schools suggested that, over a 2-year period, bullying was halved”. So the right answer is A: “Bullying declined by 50% after an anti-bullying campaign”. B, C and D are not mentioned.

+ declined by 50% = halved

=> ANSWER:  A

QUESTIONS 35-39:  COMPLETE THE SUMMARY (NO MORE THAN 2 WORDS)

35.THE MOST IMPORTANT STEP IS FOR THE SCHOOL AUTHORITIES TO PRODUCE A… WHICH MAKES THE SCHOOL‟S ATTITUDE TOWARDS BULLYING QUITE CLEAR.

Keywords: most important step, school authorities, attitude, clear

In Section E, it is written that “a key step is to develop a policy on bullying, saying clearly what is meant by bullying”.

+ the most important step = key step

+ produce = develop

=> ANSWER: policy

36.IT SHOULD INCLUDE DETAILED…. AS TO HOW THE SCHOOL AND ITS STAFF WILL REACT IF BULLYING OCCURS.

Keywords: detailed, school and its staff, react

In Section E, the writer then continues: “…and giving explicit guidelines on what will be done if it occurs…”

=> ANSWER: (explicit) guidelines

37.IN ADDITION, ACTION CAN BE TAKEN THROUGH THE… THIS IS PARTICULARLY USEFUL IN THE EARLY PART OF THE PROCESS, AS A WAY OF RAISING AWARENESS AND ENCOURAGING DISCUSSION. ON ITS OWN, HOWEVER, IT IS INSUFFICIENT TO BRING ABOUT A PERMANENT SOLUTION.

Keywords: action, useful, early part

“There are ways of dealing with the topic through the curriculum, …These are useful for raising awareness, and can best be tied in to early phases of development, while the school is starting  to discuss the issue..” (Section E) early part of the process = early phases of development

=> ANSWER: (school) curriculum

38.EFFECTIVE  WORK  CAN  ALSO  BE  DONE  WITH  INDIVIDUAL  PUPILS  AND  SMALL  GROUPS.  FOR  EXAMPLE, POTENTIAL…  OF  BULLYING  CAN  BE  TRAINED  TO  BE  MORE  SELF-CONFIDENT.  OR  AGAIN,  IN  DEALING  WITH GROUP BULLYING, A „NO BLAME‟ APPROACH, WHICH AVOIDS CONFRONTING THE OFFENDER TOO DIRECTLY, IS OFTEN EFFECTIVE.

Keywords: individual pupils, potential, self-confident

In Section E: “There are also ways of working with individual pupils, or in small groups. Assertiveness training for pupils who are liable to be victims is worthwhile…”. trained to be more self-confident = assertiveness training

+ potential = liable to…

=> ANSWER: victims

39.PLAYGROUND SUPERVISION WILL BE MORE EFFECTIVE IF MEMBERS OF STAFF ARE TRAINED TO RECOGNISE THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN BULLYING AND MERE…

Keywords: playground supervision, members of staff, recognise, difference

In section E: “One helpful step is to train lunchtime supervisors to distinguish bullying from playful fighting…”

+ members of staff = lunchtime supervisors

+ recognise the difference = distinguish

=> ANSWER: playful fighting

QUESTION 40:  WHICH IS THE MOST SUITABLE TITLE FOR READING PASSAGE 3?

  1. Bullying: what parents can do?
  2. Bullying: are the media to blame?
  3. Bullying: the link with academic failure
  4. Bullying: from crisis management to prevention

The main idea of this passage is mentioned in the preface: “How can it be prevented?” (“It” means persistent bullying). Throughout the passage, the writer reports on the problem of persistent bullying in British schools and he then discusses some ways to prevent bullying that schools are now able to implement. Therefore, the most appropriate title is “Bullying: from crisis management to prevention”. The media and the link with academic failure are not mentioned, so B and C are wrong; measures mentioned in the passage are mainly for schools and their staff, not parents, so A is wrong.

=> ANSWER: D

1. 5
2. 6
3. 3
4. 9
5. 1
6. 7
7. 10
8. N
9. Y
10. N 
11.  Y
12.  NG
13.  Y
14. B
15. F
16. £
17. J
18. F
19. NG
20. N
21. Y
22. Y
23. N
24. NG
25. C
26. E
27. 4
28. 6
29. 5
30. 7
31. B
32. D
33. D
34. A
35. policy
36. guidelines
37. curriculum
38. victims
39. playful fighting
40. D

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 READING TEST 3 ANSWERS


Cambridge IELTS 6 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 6 reading test 3 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: THE POWER OF THE BIG SCREEN

QUESTIONS 1-5: WHICH PARAGRAPH CONTAINS THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION?

1. THE LOCATION OF THE FIRST CINEMA

Keywords: location, first cinema

In  paragraph  A,  the  writer  refers  to  a  cinema  called  “Cinematographe”  together  with  its  location:  “at  14 Boulevard  des  Capucines  in  Paris”  as  well  as  its  early  time  of  formation  which  is  “on  December  8, 1895”

=>ANSWER: A

2.HOW CINEMA CAME TO FOCUS ON STORIES

Keywords: how, stories

In paragraph I, it is stated  that “…it (refers to cinema) became, overwhelmingly, a medium for telling stories.”

=>ANSWER: I

3.THE SPEED WITH WHICH CINEMA HAS CHANGED

Keywords: speed, changed

The  change  taking place in  the  cinema  is  clearly the  main  idea  of  paragraph J:   “And  it  has  all  happened  so quickly…it is a mere 100 years since……”

=>ANSWER:  J

4.HOW CINEMA TEACHES US ABOUT OTHER CULTURES.

Keywords: teaches, cultures

In paragraph E, the writer says that: “One effect of this realism was to  educate the world about itself…….Long before people travelled to America or anywhere else, they knew what  other places look like; they knew how other people worked and lived…”

+ to teach = to educate

How other places look like, how other people worked and lived ~ other cultures

=>ANSWER: E

5.THE ATTRACTION OF ACTORS IN FILMS

Keywords: attraction, actors

The actor who holds attraction for audiences, or “star”, is mentioned in paragraph G: ” The  „star‟ was another natural consequence of cinema….Film personalities have such an immediate presence that, inevitably, they become super-real”.

+ actors~stars~film personalities

=>ANSWER: G

QUESTIONS 6-9:  YES/NO/NOT GIVEN

6.IT IS IMPORTANT TO UNDERSTAND HOW THE FIRST AUDIENCE REACTED TO THE CINEMA.

Keywords: first audience, understand, reacted.

In paragraph B, the writer says that “…But it is worth trying, for to understand the initial shock of those images is to understand the extraordinary power and magic of cinema…”

“The  initial  shock  of  those  images”  refers  to  “how  the  first  audience  reacted  to  the  cinema”.  So  the  given statement agrees with the view of the writer.

+ important = worth trying

+first = initial

=>ANSWER: YES

7.THE LUMIERE BROTHERS‟ FILM ABOUT THE TRAIN WAS ONE OF THE GREATEST FILMS EVER MADE

Keywords: Lumiere Brothers‟ film, train, greatest films

Scan the keyword in capitals “Lumiere Brothers” then find it in paragraph C: “One of the  Lumiere Brothers‟ earliest films was a 30 second piece which showed a section of a railway platform flooded with sunshine.

A  train  appears  …. Yet  the  Russian  director  Andrei  Tarkovsky,  one  of  the  greatest  of  all  film  artists described the film as a „work of genius‟.” The writer only says the director Andrei Tarkovsky is one of the greatest of all film artists. Only the opinion of this director is mentioned, so we are not told if this film was one of the greatest films ever made.

=>ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

8.CINEMA PRESENTS A BIASED VIEW OF OTHER COUNTRIES

Keywords: a biased view, other countries

All the information about the cinema‟s presentation of other countries is in paragraph E. Because of the influence of the American film industry: “American imagery – the cars, the cities, the cowboys – became the primary imagery of film.  Film carried American life and values around the globe.”  Thus, we are only told that most cinema audiences watched images of American life.  We do not know if the cinema presents a biased view of other countries.

=>ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

9.STORYLINES WERE IMPORTANT IN VERY EARLY CINEMA

Keywords: storylines, early cinema

In  paragraph  H,  the  writer  mentions  that:  “All  that  mattered  at  first  was  the  wonder  of  movement.”    So movement, not storyline, was important in very early cinema.

+ in very early cinema = at first

+ important ~  mattered

=>ANSWER: NO

QUESTIONS 10-13: MULTIPLE CHOICES

10.THE WRITER REFERS TO THE FILM OF THE TRAIN IN ORDER TO DEMONSTRATE

Keywords: film of the train

In paragraph C, the film of the train, “one of the Lumiere Brothers‟  earliest films”, is described: “As the train approached, panic started in the theatre: people jumped and ran away…….they feared that a real train was about to crush them.” So the writer refers to the film of the train in order to demonstrate the impact of early films.

=>ANSWER:  B

11.IN TARKOVSKY‟S OPINION, THE ATTRACTION OF THE CINEMA IS THAT IT

Keywords: Tarkovsky, attraction of cinema

In paragraph D: “For Tarkovsky, the key to that magic was the way in which cinema created a dynamic image of the real flow of events….. in cinema, the real, objective flow of time was captured.”

+ attraction = magic

It means the attraction of the cinema is that it illustrates the passing of time.

=>ANSWER:   Answer: C

12.WHEN CINEMA FIRST BEGAN, PEOPLE THOUGHT THAT

Keywords: cinema first began

In paragraph H, the writer says that: “When the Lumiere Brothers and other pioneers began showing off this new invention, it was by no means obvious how it would be used. Indeed, some said that……cinema would fade away.” So when cinema first began, people thought that its future was uncertain.

=>ANSWER: D

13.WHAT IS THE BEST TITLE FOR THIS PASSAGE

The whole passage presents the introduction, development and impact of the cinema and only  mentions in one or two paragraphs other topics such as stars, the comparison between cinema and novels, or the domination of Hollywood.  So the best choice for its title is “The power of the big screen”.

=>ANSWER: D

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 – TEST 3 – PASSAGE 1 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 2: MOTIVATING EMPLOYEES UNDER ADVERSE CONDITIONS

QUESTIONS 14-18:  MATCHING HEADINGS

14.KEY POINT TWO

This key point suggests an effective way of meeting the challenge to management : “The literature on goal-setting theory suggests that managers should ensure that all employees have specific goals and receive comments on how well they are doing in those goals.” So the main idea of this key point is: „establish targets and give feedback‟.

+ establish  targets= setting goals

+ feedback = comments

=>ANSWER: vii

15.KEY POINT THREE

This key point shows that managers must ensure targets are realistic: “…..goals are achievable…managers must be sure…..that employees feel confident that their efforts can lead to performance goals.”

+ achievable = realistic ~ their efforts can lead to performance goals

+ to be sure ~ to ensure

=>ANSWER: iii

16.KEY POINT FOUR

The  main  idea  of  this  key  point  is  about  matching  rewards  to  individuals:  “managers  could  use  their  own knowledge of each employee to personalise the rewards over which they have control.”

+ each employee = individuals

+ personalise the rewards = match rewards to individuals

=>ANSWER:  ii

17.KEY POINT FIVE

In the topic sentence of this paragraph, the writer points out that: “Managers need to make rewards contingent on performance.”  This means that managers must link rewards to  achievement.

+ achievement = performance

=>ANSWER: iv

18.KEY POINT SIX

Continuing to talk about rewards, the writer states: “The way rewards are distributed should be transparent ….” then suggests a method of weighing inputs and outcomes according to employee group to make this key point feasible. So the correct heading of this key point is “ensure the reward system is fair.”

+ transparent ~ fair, so that everyone can understand clearly

=>ANSWER: i

QUESTIONS 19-24:   YES/NO/NOT GIVEN

19.A SHRINKING ORGANIZATION TENDS TO LOSE ITS LESS SKILLED EMPLOYEES RATHER THAN ITS MORE SKILLED EMPLOYEES.

Keywords: shrinking organization, skilled employees

In  the  first  paragraph,  the  writer  says  that:  “When  an  organization  is  shrinking,  the  best  and  most  mobile workers are prone to leave voluntarily. …they are the ones….with the highest skills and experience.” So the given statement is opposite to the writer‟s view.  The more skilled employees are the most likely to leave.

=>ANSWER:  NO

20.IT IS EASIER TO MANAGE A SMALL BUSINESS THAN A LARGE BUSINESS.

Keywords: small business, large business.

Small and large businesses are mentioned in Key Point One: “For example, if the job is running a small business or an autonomous unit within a larger business…..”, but there is no information about whether it is easier to manage a small business rather than a large business.   Instead, the paragraph deals only with matching people to jobs.

=>ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

21.HIGH ACHIEVERS ARE WELL SUITED TO TEAM WORK.

Keywords: High achievers, team work.

In the paragraph of Key Point One, the writer says: ” …high achievers will do best   … where there is independence …” So, high achievers are well suited to work independently, not to team work.

=>ANSWER: NO

22.SOME EMPLOYEES CAN FEEL MANIPULATED WHEN ASKED TO PARTICIPATE IN GOAL-SETTING.

Keywords: manipulated, participate in goal-setting

Look at the paragraph of Key Point Two, in which it is said that:  “If participation (in goal-setting) and the culture are incongruous, employees are likely to perceive the participation process as manipulative …” So, this means that some employees can feel manipulated when asked to participate in goal-setting.

=>ANSWER: YES

23.THE STAFF APPRAISAL PROCESS SHOULD BE DESIGNED BY EMPLOYEES.

Keywords: staff appraisal process

“The staff appraisal process” is only mentioned in the paragraph of Key Point Three: “For managers, this means that employees must have the capability of doing the job and must regard the appraisal process as valid.” However, the writer does not say anything about whether this process should be designed by employees or not.

+ staff = employees

=>ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

24.EMPLOYEES‟ EARNINGS SHOULD BE DISCLOSED TO EVERYONE WITHIN THE ORGANIZATION.

Keywords: earnings, disclosed

In the paragraph of Key Point Five, the writer suggests that: “Eliminating the secrecy surrounding pay by openly communicating  everyone‟s  remuneration,  publicising  performance  bonuses  ….will  make  rewards more visible …….” So, the statement agrees with the view of the writer.

+ earnings = pay, remuneration

+ disclose = eliminate the secrecy, openly communicate, publicise

=>ANSWER: YES

QUESTIONS 25-27: MATCH EACH GROUP WITH THE CORRECT DESCRIPTION.

25.HIGH ACHIEVERS

In Key Point Two, the writer states that:  “For those with high achievement needs… the existence of goals is less important because high achievers are already internally motivated.” So high achievers have less need of external goals, because they have high internal motivation.

=>ANSWER: B

26.CLERICAL WORKERS

In  Key  Point  Six,  the  writer  points  out:  “The  clerical  workers  considered  factors  such  as  quality  of  work performed and job knowledge near the top of their list”  (the list of inputs and outcomes placed in degree of importance). So they think that the quality of their work is important.

=>ANSWER: C

27.PRODUCTION WORKERS

In Key Point Six, the writer also states that: “…production workers rated advancement very highly…” It means that they judge promotion to be important.

+ promotion = advancement

=>ANSWER: A

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 – TEST 3 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 3: THE SEARCH FOR THE ANTI-AGING PILL

QUESTIONS 28-32:   YES/NO/NOT GIVEN

28.STUDIES SHOW DRUGS AVAILABLE TODAY CAN DELAY THE PROCESS OF GROWING OLD.

Keywords: drugs available today

In the first sentence of the passage, the writer states: “As researchers on aging noted recently, no treatment on the market today has been proved to slow human aging…”. It is similar to the given statement.

+drugs available ~ treatment on the market

+ delay = slow

+ the process of growing old= human aging

=>ANSWER: NO

29.THERE IS SCIENTIFIC EVIDENCE THAT EATING FEWER CALORIES MAY EXTEND HUMAN LIFE.

Keywords: scientific evidence, eating fewer calories

In  the  first  paragraph,  it  is  reported  that:  “But  one  intervention,  consumption  of  a  low-calorie  yet  nutritionally balanced diet, works incredibly well in a broad range of animals, increasing longevity and prolonging good health.” Furthermore,  in  paragraphs  4,  5  and  6,  the  writer  describes  scientists‟  experiments  studying  the  benefits  of  a caloric-restricted diet for rats and monkeys. So, there is scientific evidence that eating fewer calories may extend human life.

+ extend human life = increasing longevity

=>ANSWER: YES

30.NOT MANY PEOPLE ARE LIKELY TO FIND A CALORIC-RESTRICTED DIET ATTRACTIVE.

Keywords: a caloric-restricted diet, attractive

It is stated in the second paragraph: “Few mortals could stick to that  harsh a regimen….”, which means few people would like such a harsh caloric-restricted diet. So, the given statement is similar to the writer‟s view.

+ people = mortals

+ diet = regimen

=>ANSWER: YES

31.DIET-RELATED DISEASES ARE COMMON IN OLDER PEOPLE.

Keywords: Diet-related diseases , older people.

Age-related    diseases    are    mentioned    in    the    second    paragraph:    ”    Could    such    a    caloric-restriction mimetic….enable  people  to  stay  healthy  longer,  postponing  age-related  disorders  (such  as  diabetes, arteriosclerosis) …..”   However, the writer does not say anything about diet-related diseases in old age.

+ disease =disorder

=>ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

32.IN EXPERIMENTS, RATS WHO ATE WHAT THEY WANTED LED SHORTER LIVES THAN RATS ON A LOW-CALORIE DIET.

Keywords: experiments, rats, low-calorie diet

The experiment on rats is reported in the third and fourth paragraphs: “…they found that rats fed a low-calorie diet lived longer on average than free-feeding rats…” So, rats who ate what they wanted led shorter lives than rats on a low-calorie diet. rats who ate what they wanted = free-feeding rats

=>ANSWER: YES

QUESTIONS 33-37:  CLASSIFY THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTIONS AS RELATING TO:

  1. Caloric-restricted monkeys
  2. Control monkeys
  3. Neither caloric-restricted monkeys nor control monkeys

The  comparison  between  caloric-restricted  monkeys  and  control  ones  (ones  that  eat  normally)  is  reported  in paragraphs 5 and 6. The caloric-restricted monkeys: “have lower body temperature and levels of the pancreatic hormone insulin”; “have lower blood pressure and triglyceride levels (signifying a decreased likelihood of heart disease)….;”have more normal blood glucose levels (pointing to a reduced risk for diabetes)” and “have less chronic disease”.

33.MONKEYS WERE LESS LIKELY TO BECOME DIABETIC

=>ANSWER: A

34.MONKEYS EXPERIENCED MORE CHRONIC DISEASE.

=>ANSWER: B

35.MONKEYS HAVE BEEN SHOWN TO EXPERIENCE A LONGER THAN AVERAGE LIFE SPAN

In  the  sixth paragraph, the writer  says:  “They (refers to  caloric-restricted monkeys)  and the other monkeys must be followed still longer, however, to know whether low-calorie intake can increase both average and maximum lifespan in monkeys.” It means that we do not yet know whether caloric-restricted monkeys experience a longer than average life span than the control monkeys.

=>ANSWER: C

36.MONKEYS ENJOYED A REDUCED CHANCE OF HEART DISEASE.

=>ANSWER: A

37.MONKEYS PRODUCED GREATER QUANTITIES OF INSULIN.

=>ANSWER: B

QUESTIONS 38-40: CHOOSE NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS FROM THE PASSAGE TO COMPLETE THE FLOW-CHART:

How a caloric- restriction mimetic works

CR mimetic

Less 38……is produced

Productions of ATP is decreased

Theory 1:                                          Theory 2:

Cells  less  damaged  by  disease  because  fewer Cel ls focus on 40…..because food is in short supply 39……are emitted

38.IN THE LAST PARAGRAPH, THE WRITER SAYS THAT: “.CALORIC RESTRICTION MINIMIZES THE AMOUNT OF GLUCOSE ENTERING CELLS…..”  THIS MEANS THAT LESS GLUCOSE IS PRODUCED THAN NORMAL.

=>ANSWER: glucose

39.ACCORDING TO THE LAST PARAGRAPH, THERE ARE TWO “EXPLANATIONS FOR WHY INTERRUPTION OF GLUCOSE PROCESSING AND ATP PRODUCTION MIGHT RETARD AGING.”

In which, “one possibility relates to the ATP-making machinery‟s emission of free radicals ….Reduced operation of the machinery should limit their production and thereby constrain the damage.”The words “their production” refers to “the ATP-making machinery‟s emission of free radicals”. So, the damage is constrained because of limited emission of free radicals, or fewer free radicals are emitted.

+ emission~production

=>ANSWER: free radicals

40.IT IS ALSO STATED IN THE LAST PARAGRAPH THAT: “ANOTHER HYPOTHESIS SUGGESTS THAT DECREASE PROCESSING OF GLUCOSE COULD INDICATE TO CELLS THAT FOOD IS SCARCE AND INDUCE THEM TO SHIFT INTO AN ANTI-AGING MODE THAT EMPHASIZES PRESERVATION OF THE ORGANISM…”

+ in short supply = scarce

+ focus on = emphasize

=>ANSWER: preservation

1. A
2. I
3. J
4. E
5. G
6. yes
7. not given
8. not given
9. no
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. D
14. 7
15. 3
16. 2
17. 4
18. 1
19. NO
20. NOT GIVEN
21. NO
22. YES
23. NOT GIVEN
24. YES
25. B
26. C
27. A
28. NO
29. YES
30. YES
31. NOT GIVEN 
32. YES
33. A
34. B
35. C
36. A
37. B
38. GLUCOSE
39. FREE RADICALS
40. PRESERVATION

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS 


Cambridge IELTS 6 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 6 reading test 2 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: ADVANTAGES OF PUBLIC TRANSPORT

QUESTIONS 1-5: MATCHING HEADINGS

1. PARAGRAPH A

In this paragraph, the writer refers to the role of politics in determining transport strategy: “The more democratic the  process,  the  more  public  transport  is  favored.”  He  citesPortland,  Oregon  as  a  successful  exercise  in public power: “Some years ago, federal money was granted to build a new road.

However, local pressure groups forced a referendum over whether to spend the money on light rail instead. The rail proposal won and the railway worked spectacularly well.” Therefore, the correct heading for this paragraph is “A successful exercise in people power.”

=>ANSWER:   ii

2. PARAGRAPH B

The paragraph is about travel time: “In the UK, travel times to work had been stable for at least six centuries,… However, public infrastructure did not keep pace with urban sprawl, causing massive congestion problems which now make commuting times far higher.” So “Increases in travelling time” is the appropriate heading for the paragraph.

=>ANSWER:   vii

3. PARAGRAPH C

The relation between wealth and car use is the main topic in this paragraph. In the first sentence, the writer states: “There is a widespread belief that increasing wealth encourages people to live farther out where cars are the only viable transport.”

However, by giving examples of some European and Asian cities, he shows that higher incomes need not mean more  cars:  “They  are  often  wealthier  than  their  American  counterparts  but  have  not  generated  the same level of car use. In Stockholm, car use has actually fallen in recent years as the city has become larger and wealthier. …Developing cities in Asia, such as Jakarta and Bangkok, make more use of the car than wealthy Asian cities such as Tokyo and Singapore.”

=>ANSWER:   iv

4. PARAGRAPH D

In this paragraph, the writer refers to Newman‟s report, which suggests using rail transport to avoid the problem of  an  overcrowded  city  centre:  “It  found  that  pushing  everyone  into  the  city  centre  was  not  the  best approach. Instead, the proposal advocated the creation of urban villages at hundreds of sites, mostly around railway stations.”

The best choice for the paragraph’s heading is “Avoiding an overcrowded centre.”

=>ANSWER:   i

5. PARAGRAPH E

Though the writer mentions “telecommunications” in the first sentence of the paragraph, its main idea is actually the benefits of working together in the city: “…it is valuable to  place people working in related fields together. The new world will largely depend on human creativity, and creativity flourishes where people come together face-to-face.”

So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “The benefits of working together in the city”

=>ANSWER:   iii

QUESTIONS 6-10: TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN

6. THE ISTP STUDY EXAMINED PUBLIC AND PRIVATE SYSTEMS IN EVERY CITY OF THE WORLD.

Keywords: ISTP study, public and private systems

Scan the word “ISTP” and find it in the first paragraph: “A new study conducted for the World Bank by Murdoch University‟s Institute for Science and Technology Policy (ISTP) has demonstrated that public transport is more  efficient  than  cars.  The  study  compared  the  proportion  of  wealth  poured  into  transport  by  thirty- seven cities around the world.”

It is clear that the ISTP study examined only thirty-seven cities around the world, not every city of the world. public system ~ public transport private system ~ cars

=>ANSWER:   FALSE

7. EFFICIENT CITIES CAN IMPROVE THE QUALITY OF LIFE FOR THEIR INHABITANTS.

Keywords: Efficient cities, quality of life

Moving to the second paragraph, it is reported that: “…these more efficient cities were able to put the difference into attracting industry and jobs or creating a better place to live.” improving the quality of life ~ creating a better place to live

=>ANSWER:   TRUE

8.AN INNER-CITY TRAM NETWORK IS DANGEROUS FOR CAR DRIVERS.

Keywords: an inner-city tram network, dangerous

The inner-city tram network is mentioned in the third paragraph: “Melbourne‟s large tram network has made car use  in the inner  city much  lower, but  the outer  suburbs  have the same car-based structure as  most  other Australian cities.”

However, there is no information about whether an inner-city tram network is dangerous for car drivers.

=>ANSWER:   NOT GIVEN

9. IN MELBOURNE, PEOPLE PREFER TO LIVE IN THE OUTER SUBURBS.

Keywords: Melbourne, outer suburbs

In the last sentence of the third paragraph, the writer says that: “The explosion in demand for accommodation in the inner suburbs of Melbourne suggests a recent change in many people‟s preferences as to where they live.” This means that more and more people in Melbourne now prefer to live in the inner suburbs.

=>ANSWER:   FALSE

10. CITIES WITH HIGH LEVELS OF BICYCLE USAGE CAN BE EFFICIENT EVEN WHEN PUBLIC TRANSPORT IS ONLY AVERAGELY GOOD.

Keywords: bicycle usage, public transport, averagely good

In the fifth paragraph, it is stated that: “Bicycle use was not included in the study but Newman noted that the two most “bicycle friendly” cities considered – Amsterdam and Copenhagen -were very efficient, even though their public transport systems were “reasonable but not special”.”

Thus, the given statement is true.

+ Cities with high levels of bicycle usage = bicycle friendly cities

+ averagely good = reasonable but not special

=>ANSWER:   TRUE

QUESTIONS 11-13: MATCHING NAMES: MATCH EACH CITY WITH CORRECT DESCRIPTION

11. PERTH

In the second paragraph, the writer says: “…the Western Australian city of Perth is a good example of a city with  minimal  public  transport.  As  a  result,  17%  of  its  wealth  went  into  transport  costs.  Some European and Asian cities, on the other hand, spent as little as 5%.”

The proportion of wealth poured into transport of Perth is 17%,while the figure for some other cities is only 5%. So, Perth is inefficient due to a limited public transport system.

+ a limited public transport system = minimal public transport

=>ANSWER:   F

12. AUCKLAND

Auckland is mentioned in the seventh paragraph as : “…it would be hard for a city as hilly as Auckland to develop a really good rail network.” This  means that Auckland is hilly and inappropriate for a good rail transport system.

+ rail transport system = rail network

  Answer: D

13. PORTLAND

In paragraph A, the writer gives an example about Portland: “Some years ago, federal money was granted to build a new road. However, local pressure groups forced a referendum over whether to spend the money on light rail instead. The rail proposal won and the railway worked spectacularly well.”

This means that Portland profitably moved from road to a light rail transport system

=>ANSWER:   C

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 – TEST 2 – PASSAGE 1 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 2: GREYING POPULATION STAYS IN THE PINK

QUESTIONS 14-22: COMPLETE THE SUMMARY USING THE GIVEN LIST OF WORDS

14 &15. RESEARCH CARRIED OUT BY SCIENTISTS IN THE UNITED STATES HAS SHOWN THAT THE PROPORTION OF PEOPLE OVER 65 SUFFERING FROM THE MOST COMMON AGE-RELATED MEDICAL PROBLEMS IS (14)…AND THAT THE SPEED OF THIS CHANGE IS (15)…

Keywords: the United States, 65, most common age-related medical problems, speed, change

In  paragraph  2,  the  writer  discusses  the  health  of  the  over  65  age  group.  The  writer  says:  “Researchers  … sayarthritis,  high  blood  pressure  and  circulation  problems  –  the  major  medical  complaints  in  this  age group -are troubling a smaller and smaller proportion every year. …the rate at which diseases are declining continues to accelerate.”

+ The major medical complaints in this age group  = the   most   common   age-related medical problems

+ The rate  at which diseases are declining  = the speed of this change

+ to accelerate = to increase

So the missing word in number 14 and 15 is “falling” and “increasing”, respectively.

=>ANSWER:   14. B       15. I

16. IT ALSO SEEMS THAT THESE DISEASES ARE AFFECTING PEOPLE … IN LIFE THAN THEY DID IN THE PAST.

It  is  stated  in  the  first  paragraph  that:  “…the  diseases  associated  with  old  age  are  afflicting  fewer  and fewer people and when they do strike, it is much later in life.”

This means that these age-related diseases are affecting people later in life than they did in the past.

+ to affect ~to afflict

=>ANSWER:   F

17 & 18.  THIS  IS  LARGELY  DUE  TO  DEVELOPMENTS  IN  (17)  …,  BUT  OTHER  FACTORS  SUCH  AS  IMPROVED (18)…MAY ALSO BE PLAYING A PART.

Keywords: developments, improved, factors

In  the  fourth  paragraph, the  writer  says:  “Clearly,  certain  diseases  are  beating a  retreat  in the  face of  medical advances. But there may be other contributing factors.Improvements in childhood nutrition …gave today‟s elderly people a better start in life than their predecessors.”

So among the given list of words, “medicine” and “nutrition” are the best choices.

+ due to = in the face of

+ playing a part = contributing (factors)

=>ANSWER:   17. M ; 18. J

19. INCREASES IN SOME OTHER ILLNESSES MAY BE DUE TO CHANGES IN PERSONAL HABITS AND TO ….

Keywords: increase, changes, personal habits

It  is  clear  that  “changes  in  personal  habits”  and  the  missing  words  are  parallel,  so  the  former  is  a  clue.

In paragraph 5, the writer says: ” An increase in some cancers and bronchitis may reflect changing smoking habits and poorer air quality….”

“changes in personal habits” refers to “changing smoking habits”. So the most suitable word to refer to “poorer air quality” is pollution.

=>ANSWER:   N

20. THE RESEARCH ESTABLISHES A LINK BETWEEN LEVELS OF ……..AND LIFE EXPECTANCY.

Keywords: link, life expectancy

In paragraph 6, it is shown that: “One interesting correlation Manton uncovered is that better-educated people are likely to live longer.” So, the research establishes a link between levels of education and life expectancy.

+ link = correlation

=>ANSWER:   K

21 & 22.  IT ALSO SHOWS THAT THERE HAS BEEN A CONSIDERABLE REDUCTION IN THE NUMBER OF ELDERLY PEOPLE WHO ARE  (21)….,  WHICH  MEANS  THAT  THE  (22)  ….INVOLVED  IN  SUPPORTING  THIS  SECTION  OF  THE POPULATION MAY BE LESS THAN PREVIOUSLY PREDICTED.

Keywords: elderly, reduction, population

The missing word in number 21 and 22 must be an adjective and a noun, respectively.

In the seventh paragraph, the writer states that: “That represents a siginificant dropin the number of disabled old people in the population. …slowing the trend has saved…more than $200 billion, suggesting that the greying of America‟s population may prove less of a financial burden than expected.”

So the missing words are “disabled” and “cost”.

+ a considerable reduction = a significant drop

+ elderly people = old people

+ the number of… old people in the population = the greying of America‟s population

+ predicted = expected

=>ANSWER:   21. G;    22. A

QUESTIONS 23-26: COMPLETE EACH SENTENCE WITH THE CORRECT ENDING

23. HOME MEDICAL AIDS

Scan this keyword to find it in paragraph 8: “The increasing self-reliance of many elderly people is probably linked to a massive increase in the use of simple home medical aids.” This means that home medical aids allow old people to be more independent.

+ independence = self-reliance

=>ANSWER:   G

24. REGULAR AMOUNTS OF EXERCISE

In   paragraph   9,   the   writer   says:   “Maintaining   a   level   of   daily   physical   activity   may   help   mental functioning,..,  may  prevent  the  brains  of  active  humans  from  deteriorating”,  which  means  that regular amounts of exercise may help prevent mental decline.

+ regular amount of exercise = level of daily physical activity

=>ANSWER:   E

25. FEELINGS OF CONTROL OVER LIFE

The  connection  between  feeling  of  control  and  stress  is  mentioned  in  paragraph  10:  “…  found  a  connection between self-esteem and stress in people over 70. In laboratory simulations of challenging activities such as driving, those who felt in control over their lives pumped out lower levels of stress hormones such as cortisol.”

So feelings of control over life can reduce stress in difficult situations.

+ difficult situations= challenging activities

=>ANSWER:   H

26. FEELINGS OF LONELINESS

In paragraph 11, the writer says: ” …elderly people who felt emotionally isolated maintained higher levels of stress hormones even when asleep.”

This means that feelings of loneliness may cause rises in levels of stress hormones.

+ feelings of loneliness ~ to feel emotionally isolated

=>ANSWER:   C

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 – TEST 2 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 3: NUMERATION

QUESTIONS 27-31: COMPLETE EACH SENTENCE WITH THE CORRECT ENDING.

27. A DEVELOPED SYSTEM OF NUMBERING

In the second paragraph, it is stated that:  “As they (refer to “early humans” mentioned in the previous sentence) began  to  settle,  grow  plants  and  herd  animals,  the  need  for  a  sophisticated  number  system  became paramount.”

+ farming = settle, grow plants and herd animals

+ a developed system of numbering = a sophisticated number system

+ necessary = paramount

So, a developed system of numbering was necessary when people began farming.

=>ANSWER:   B

28.AN ADDITIONAL HAND SIGNAL

An additional hand signal is mentioned in paragraph 3: “… The word many would mean, Look at my hands and see how many fingers I am showing you. This basic approach is limited in the range of numbers,…, but this range will generally suffice when dealing with the simpler aspects of human existence.”

Thus, an additional hand signal was used when the range of number words was restricted.

+ restricted = limited

=>ANSWER:   E

29.IN SEVENTH-CENTURY EUROPE, THE ABILITY TO COUNT TO A CERTAIN NUMBER

Scan the keyword “seventh-century Europe” then find it in paragraph 4. It is also written that: “In fact, to qualify as a witness in a court of law a man had to be able to count to nine!”

“a witness in a court of law” is a civic role and “to be able to count to nine” refers to the ability to count to a certain number. So the ability to count to a certain number was necessary in order to fulfil a civic role.

=>ANSWER:   A

30.THINKING ABOUT NUMBERS AS CONCEPTS SEPARATE FROM PHYSICAL OBJECTS

In the fifth paragraph, the writer says: “… a number is really an abstract idea instead of a simple attachment to a group of particular objects…. When the number 4 can be registered in the mind as a specific word, independent  of  the  object  being  referenced,  the  individual  is  ready  to  take  the  first  step  toward  the development of a notational system for numbers and, from there, to arithmetic.” So  thinking  about  numbers  as  concepts  separate  from  physical  objects  was  necessary  for  the  development  of arithmetic.

+ separate from = independent of

+ concept = abstract idea

=>ANSWER:   C

31.EXPRESSING NUMBER DIFFERENTLY ACCORDING TO CLASS OF ITEM

In paragraph 6, the writer reports: “Traces of the very first stages in the development of numeration can be seen in several living languages today. The numeration system of …for numbers according to the class of the item….”. In short, this way of expressing number was a characteristic of early numeration systems.

=>ANSWER:   G

QUESTIONS 32-40: TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN

32.FOR THE EARLIEST TRIBES, THE CONCEPT OF SUFFICIENCY WAS MORE IMPORTANT THAN THE CONCEPT OF QUANTITY.

Keywords: earliest tribes, sufficiency, quantity

The period of time “earliest tribes” is mentioned in the second paragraph: “Even the earliest of tribes…..their considerations would have been more of the kind Is this enough?rather than How many?…….” “Is this enough?” refers to the concept of sufficiency, while “How many?” refers to the concept of quantity. So, the statement is true.

=>ANSWER:   TRUE

33.INDIGENOUS TASMANIANS USED ONLY FOUR TERMS TO INDICATE NUMBERS OF OBJECTS.

Keywords: Indigenous Tasmanians

It is stated in the third paragraph that: “The indigenous peoples of Tasmania were only able to count one, two, many….” So there are only three terms: one, two and many.

=>ANSWER:   FALSE

+ The statement is false.

+ Tasmanians = peoples of Tasmania

34.SOME  PEOPLED  WITH  SIMPLE  NUMBER  SYSTEMS  USE  BODY  LANGUAGE  TO  PREVENT  MISUNDERSTANDING  OF EXPRESSIONS OF NUMBERS.

Keywords: body language, misunderstanding

It is stated in the third paragraph that: “But in real situations the number and words are often accompanied by gestures to help resolve any confusion.” The writer then describes a specific example of a situation using body language to express number.

+ body language ~ gestures

+ prevent misunderstanding ~ resolve any confusion

So the statement is true.

=>ANSWER:   TRUE

35.ALL CULTURES HAVE BEEN ABLE TO EXPRESS LARGE NUMBERS CLEARLY.

Keywords: cultures, large numbers

In paragraph 4, the writer points out that: “The lack of ability of some cultures to deal with large numbers is not really surprising.”

Therefore, some cultures have not been able to express large numbers clearly.

+ express large numbers = deal with large numbers

=>ANSWER:   FALSE

36.THE WORD “THOUSAND” HAS ANGLO-SAXON ORIGINS.

Keywords: thousand, Anglo-Saxon

The writer refers to the Anglo-Saxon language in paragraph 4.He makes a list of words and their origins. Only the numbers 10 and 100 are mentioned, but “thousand” is not referred to.

=>ANSWER:   NOT GIVEN

37.IN GENERAL, PEOPLE IN SEVENTH-CENTURY EUROPE HAD POOR COUNTING ABILITY.

Keywords: seventh-century Europe, counting ability

Continue to examine paragraph 4, and we find that: “The average person in the seventh century in Europe was not as familiar with numbers as we are today. In fact, to qualify as a witness in a court of law a man had to be able to count to nine.” So, people in seventh-century Europe had poor counting ability.

=>ANSWER:   TRUE

38.IN THE TSIMSHIAN LANGUAGE , THE NUMBER FOR LONG OBJECTS AND CANOES IS EXPRESSED WITH THE SAME WORD.

Keywords: Tsimshian, long objects , canoes

In paragraph 6, it is written that: “The numeration system of the Tsimshian language….contains seven  distinct sets of words..: .for long objects and trees, for canoes…” So the words expressing the number for long objects and canoes are different.

=>ANSWER:   FALSE

 39.THE TSIMSHIAN LANGUAGE CONTAINS BOTH OLDER AND NEWER SYSTEMS OF COUNTING.

Keywords: Tsimshian, older and newer

After listing seven distinct sets of words for numbers according to the class of item inthe Tsimshian language, the writer says: “It seems that the last is a later development while the first six groups show the relics of an older system.”  The last set is used “…for counting when no particular object is being numerated”.

+ system of counting = numeration system

So the Tsimshian language contains both older and newer systems of counting.

=>ANSWER:   TRUE

40.EARLY PEOPLES FOUND IT EASIER TO COUNT BY USING THEIR FINGERS RATHER THAN A GROUP OF PEBBLES.

Keywords: fingers, pebbles

These are mentioned in the last paragraph: “…it is possible to count by matching the items being counted against a group of pebbles,….or the counter‟s fingers.”Although early peoples found this necessary, the passage does not say which of these was easier to use for counting purposes.

=>ANSWER:   NOT GIVEN

1. ii
2. vii
3. iv
4. i
5. iii
6. false
7. true
8. not given
9. false
10. true
11. F
12. D
13. C
14. falling
15. increasing
16. later
17. medicine
18. nutrition
19. pollution
20. education
21. disabled
22. cost
23. G
24. E
25. H
26. C
27. B
28. E
29. A
30. C
31. G
32. true
33. false
34. true
35. false
36. not given
37. true
38. false
39. true
40. not given

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 READING TEST 1 ANSWERS


Cambridge IELTS 6 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 6 reading test 1 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: AUSTRALIA’S SPORTING SUCCESS

QUESTIONS 1-7: WHICH PARAGRAPH CONTAINS THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION?

1.  A REFERENCE TO THE EXCHANGE OF EXPERTISE BETWEEN DIFFERENT SPORTS

Keywords: exchange, expertise, different sports
In paragraph B, the writer says: “AIS scientists work across a number of sports, applying skills learned in one – such as building muscle strength in golfers – to others, such as swimming and squash”.
+ expertise = skills
=> ANSWER:  B

2.  AN EXPLANATION OF HOW VISUAL IMAGING IS EMPLOYED IN INVESTIGATION

Keywords: how, visual imaging, investigation
In paragraph C, the writer states that: “It (refers to “SWAN system” mentioned in the previous sentence) collects images from digital cameras running at 50 frames a second and breaks down each part of a swimmer’s performance  into  factors  that  can  be  analysed  individually  –  stroke  length,  stroke  frequency,  average duration of each stroke, velocity, start, lap and finish times, and so on.”
+ investigate =analyse
=> ANSWER:  C

3. A REASON FOR NARROWING THE SCOPE OF RESEARCH ACTIVITY

Keywords: narrowing, scope, research activity
In paragraph B, the writer says: “They (refers to technicians mentioned in the previous sentence) all focus on one aim: winning. “We can‟t waste our time looking at ethereal scientific questions that don‟t help the coach work with an athlete and improve performance..”
=> ANSWER:   B

4.    HOW SOME AIS IDEAS HAVE BEEN REPRODUCED

Keywords: AIS ideas, reproduced
The last paragraph F is all about the replication of AIS ideas by other countries: ” Of course, there‟s nothing to stop other countries copying – and many have tried. Some years ago, the AIS unveiled coolant-lined jackets for endurance athletes. …The same  has happened to the altitude tent, developed by AIS to  replicate the effect of altitude training at sea level..”
+ to copy= to replicate ~to reproduce
=> ANSWER:  F

5.    HOW OBSTACLES TO OPTIMUM ACHIEVEMENT CAN BE INVESTIGATED

Keywords: obstacles, optimum achievement
In paragraph D, the writer gives an example of analyzing the data on the swimmers: “He points out the data on the swimmers  in  second  and  third  place,  which  shows  that  the  one  who  finished  third  actually  swam faster…..His turn times were 44 hundredths of a second behind the other guy, says Mason. If he can improve on his turn, he can do much better”.
The writer also adds some other examples (about sensors, protein level tests) which are used to optimize athletes‟ achievement.
=> ANSWER:  D

6.    AN OVERVIEW OF THE FUNDED SUPPORT OF ATHLETES

Keywords: funded support,
The  writer  mentions  in  paragraph  A:  “Another  body,  the  Australian  Sports  Commission  (ASC),  finances programmes of excellence in a total of 96 sports for thousands of sportsmen and women.”
+ athletes = sportsmen and women
+ funded support = financing
=> ANSWER:  A

7.    HOW PERFORMANCE REQUIREMENTS ARE CALCULATED BEFORE AN EVENT

Keywords:  performance requirements, calculated, before an event
In paragraph E, the writer says: “Well before a championship, sports scientists and coaches start to prepare the athlete by developing a “competition model”, based on what they expect will be the winning times.”
+ event = championship
=> ANSWER:  E

QUESTIONS 8-11:

Classify the following techniques according to whether the writer states they:
A  : are currently exclusively used by Australians
B: will be used in the future by Australians
C: are currently used by both Australians and their rivals.

8. CAMERAS:

scan this word and find it in paragraph C: “Mason’s contribution to sport also includes the development of the SWAN system now used in Australian national competitions. It collects images from digital cameras …”

 Answer: A

9. SENSORS:

scan and find it in paragraph D: “With the Cooperative Research Centre for Micro Technology in  Melbourne,  they  are  developing  unobtrusive  sensors  that…”   In  this  case,  these  sensors  are  still being developed, for use in the future.
=> ANSWER:  B

10. PROTEIN TESTS:

scan and find it in paragraph D: “…AIS and the University of Newcastle in New South Wales  developed  a  test  that  measures  how  much  of  the  immune-system  protein  immunoglobin  is present  in  athletes‟  saliva….Since  the  tests  were  introduced,  AIS  athletes  in  all  sports  have  been remarkably successful at staying healthy.”
=> ANSWER:  A

11.  ALTITUDE TESTS:

scan and find it in paragraph F: “…Now  everyone uses them. The same (refers to the copying of AIS ideas by other countries) has happened to the altitude tent.”
=> ANSWER:  C

QUESTIONS 12 AND 13:ANSWER THE QUESTIONS.

Choose no more than THREE words and/or a number from the passage for each answer.

12.  WHAT IS PRODUCED TO HELP AN ATHLETE PLAN THEIR PERFORMANCE IN AN EVENT?

Keywords: What, plan, performance
In  paragraph  E:  “Well  before  a  championship,  sports  scientists  and  coaches  start  to  prepare  the  athlete  by developing a “competition model”, based on what they expect will be the winning times.”
=> ANSWER:   (a) competition model

13.  BY HOW MUCH DID SOME CYCLISTS’ PERFORMANCE IMPROVE AT THE 1996 OLYMPIC GAMES?

Keywords: how much, cyclists’ performance, improve , 1996 Olympic Games
Scanning the phrase “the 1996 Olympic Games”, find it in paragraph F: “At the Atlanta Olympic Games in 1996, these sliced as much as two per cent off cyclists’ and rowers‟ times.”
=> ANSWER:  (by) 2 per cent/%

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 – TEST 1 – PASSAGE 1 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 2: DELIVERING THE GOODS

QUESTIONS 14-17: WHICH PARAGRAPH CONTAINS THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION?

14.  A SUGGESTION FOR IMPROVING TRADE IN THE FUTURE

Keywords: suggestion, improving trade
The keyword “a suggestion” give us a clue down to the last paragraph, where the writer usually gives his own opinion, advice or suggestion. Thus, in paragraph I, the writer talks about the barriers in transportation in most  countries then concludes:  “Bringing these barriers  down  would help the world‟s  economies  grow even closer.”
=> ANSWER:  I

15.  THE EFFECTS OF THE INTRODUCTION OF ELECTRONIC DELIVERY

Keywords: electronic delivery
In paragraph F, the writer says: “Computer software can be „exported‟ without ever loading it onto a ship, simply by transmitting it over telephone lines from one country to another, so freight rates and cargo-handling schedules become insignificant factors in deciding where to make the product.”
=> ANSWER:  F

16. THE SIMILAR COST INVOLVED IN TRANSPORTING A PRODUCT FROM ABROAD OR FROM A LOCAL SUPPLIER

Keywords: cost, abroad, local supplier
In paragraph E, the writer reports that: “Computer manufacturers in Japan or Texas will not face hugely bigger freight bills if they import drives from Singapore rather than purchasing them on the domestic market.”
+ a local supplier = the domestic market
=> ANSWER:  E

17.  THE WEAKENING RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN THE VALUE OF GOODS AND THE COST OF THEIR DELIVERY

Keywords: value of goods, cost of delivery
In paragraph D, it is stated that: “As a result, less transportation is required to every dollar‟s worth of imports or exports.”
=> ANSWER:  D

QUESTIONS 18-22: DO THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS AGREE WITH THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN READING PASSAGE 2 ?

18. INTERNATIONAL TRADE IS INCREASING AT A GREATER RATE THAN THE WORLD ECONOMY.

Keywords: International trade ,world economy, rate
In the first paragraph: “While the global economy has been expanding at a bit over 3% a year, the volume of trade has been rising at a compound annual rate of about twice that.” So, the statement is true.
+ the world economy = the global economy
+ to increase = to expand = to rise
=> ANSWER:  TRUE

19.  CHEAP LABOUR GUARANTEES EFFECTIVE TRADE CONDITIONS.

Keywords: cheap, labour
In paragraph B, the writer says that: “Cheap labour may make Chinese clothing competitive in America, but if delays  in shipment  tie up working capital  and cause winter  coats  to arrive in spring,  trade may lose  its advantages.” So, cheap labour does not guarantee effective trade conditions, because other factors such as delays in transport may damage the trade.
=> ANSWER:  FALSE

20.  JAPAN IMPORTS MORE MEAT AND STEEL THAN FRANCE.

Keywords: Japan, meat and steel, France
Scan  these  keywords,  then  find  out  that  all  the  related  information  is  in  paragraph  C.  However,  there  is  no information about whether Japan imports more meat and steel than France, because the countries are not compared with each other.
=> ANSWER:  NOT GIVEN

21.  MOST COUNTRIES CONTINUE TO PREFER TO TRADE WITH THEIR NEARBY NATIONS.

Keywords: countries, nearby nations
It   is   mentioned   in   paragraph   D   that:   “Countries   still   trade   disproportionately   with   their   geographic neighbours.” This is definitely similar to the given statement.
+ nearby nations = geographic neighbours
=> ANSWER:  TRUE

22.  SMALL COMPUTER COMPONENTS ARE MANUFACTURED IN GERMANY.

Keywords: computer components, Germany
All information related to computer components is given in  paragraph E.   The small computer components are disk   drives   which,   we   are   told   “…are   small   and   light”.     Also:   “Most   of   the   world‟s   disk-drive manufacturing is concentrated in South-east Asia”. However, Germany is not mentioned throughout the paragraph.
+ computer components = disk drives
=> ANSWER:  NOT GIVEN

QUESTIONS 23-26: COMPLETE THE SUMMARY USING THE LIST OF WORDS

23.  MODERN CARGO-HANDLING METHODS HAVE HAD A SIGNIFICANT EFFECT ON … AS THE BUSINESS OF MOVING FREIGHT AROUND THE WORLD BECOMES INCREASINGLY STREAMLINED.

Keywords: Modern cargo-handling methods, business of moving freight
The passage is  about the “vast  expansion in international trade”  and  “the explosion in international  commerce (paragraph B)” In the beginning of the passage, it is stated that: “The vast expansion in international trade owes much to a revolution in the business of moving freight.” The “revolution in the  business  of  moving freight”  refers  to “modern cargo-handling methods” (including electronic delivery, containerization specified in paragraphs E and F respectively). Therefore, we can easily choose the word “trade” among the given ones to fill in the space.
=> ANSWER: G

24.  MANUFACTURERS OF COMPUTERS, FOR INSTANCE, ARE ABLE TO IMPORT …FROM OVERSEAS, RATHER THAN HAVING TO RELY ON A LOCAL SUPPLIER.

Keywords: Manufacturers of computers
“….lightweight components” of manufactured goods are mentioned in paragraph D. Computers are then referred to in paragraph E, where the writer says that: “Computer manufacturers in Japan or Texas will not face hugely  bigger  freight  bills  if  they  import  drives  from  Singapore  rather  than  purchasing  them  on  the domestic market.” Among the given list of words, “components”is the best choice.
=> ANSWER:  B

25.  THE  INTRODUCTION OF  …… HAS  MEANT  THAT  BULK CARGO  CAN  BE  SAFELY AND  EFFICIENTLY  MOVED  OVER  LONG DISTANCES.

Keywords: bulk cargo, safely and efficiently moved
Bulk cargo means transported goods that are heavy or large. Moving to paragraph G, we find that: “Forty years ago, the process of exporting or importing involved a great many stages of handling, which risked portions of the shipment being damaged or stolen along the way. The invention  of  the  container  crane  made  it  possible  to  load  and  unload  containers  without  capsizing  the ship…” So the answer should be “container ships”.
+ introduction = invention
=> ANSWER:  C

26. WHILE INTERNATIONAL SHIPPING IS NOW EFFICIENT, THERE IS STILL A NEED FOR GOVERNMENTS TO REDUCE ….. IN ORDER TO FREE UP THE DOMESTIC CARGO SECTOR.

Keywords: governments, domestic cargo sector
In  paragraph  H,  it  is  said  that:  “The  shipping  container  transformed  ocean  shipping  into  a  highly  efficient, intensely competitive business. But getting the cargo to and from the dock was a different story. National governments, by and large, kept a much firmer hand on truck and railroad tariffs than on charges for ocean freight….airlines,  then  road  hauliers  and  railways  were  freed  from  restrictions….Big  productivity  gains resulted…” Then the writer gives examples and gives his own advice in the rest of the passage. So the most suitable word is “tariffs”
+ The shipping container transformed ocean shipping into a highly efficient = While international shipping is now efficient
+ the domestic cargo sector = getting the cargo to and from the dock
=> ANSWER:  A

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6 – TEST 1 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 3: CLIMATE CHANGE AND THE INUIT

QUESTIONS 27-32:  MATCHING HEADINGS

27.  PARAGRAPH B

The whole paragraph indicates how Inuit people react to climate change: “…they are not content simply to stand back and let outside experts tell them what‟s happening …they believe their best hope of survival in this changing environment lies in combining their ancestral knowledge with the best of modern science.” So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “the reaction of Inuit people to climate change”
=> ANSWER:  i

28.  PARAGRAPH C

In this paragraph, the writer describes how hard the Arctic environment is, for example: “The Canadian Arctic is a vast, treeless polar desert that‟s covered with snow for most of the year…. Farming is out of question and nature offers meagre pickings…. The environment tested them to the limits: sometimes the colonists were successful, sometimes they failed and vanished.”
So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “a difficult landscape”
=> ANSWER:  vi

29.  PARAGRAPH D

Some  alternative  sources  of  essential  supplies  are  mentioned  in  this  paragraph:  “Provisions  available  in  local shops have to be flown into Nunavut on one of the most costly air networks in the world, or brought by supply  ship  during  the  few  ice-free  weeks  of  summer.  It  would  cost  a  family  around  £7,000  a  year  to replace meat they obtained themselves through hunting with imported meat. “
So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “alternatives sources of essential supplies”
=> ANSWER:  iii

30.  PARAGRAPH E

Negative  effects  of  climate  change  on  the  Inuit  people‟s  life  is  the  main  idea  of  this  paragraph.  In  the  first sentence (topic sentence), the writer claims  that: “While the Inuit  may not  actually starve if  hunting and trapping are curtailed by climate change, there has certainly been an impact on people‟s health.” After  that,  the  writer  lists  a  variety  of  detrimental  effects,  including  obesity,  heart  disease,  diabetes,  crisis  of identity and a high incidence of depression. So, the correct heading for this paragraph is “Negative effects on well-being”

=> ANSWER:  vii

31.  PARAGRAPH F

The paragraph is about the Inuit’s role in comparison with outside scientists in researching climate change: “With so much at stake, the Inuit are determined to play a key role in teasing out the mysteries of climate change in the Arctic.”  To be more specific, the writer then talks about the growth of Inuit opinion represented by John Amagoalik, an Inuit leader and politician: ” In the early days, scientists ignored us…. But in recent years,  IQ  has  had  much  more credibility and weight.”   In fact, the Inuit  are “helping to set  the research agenda”. So, the correct heading for this paragraph should be ” Respect for Inuit opinion grows”
=> ANSWER:  iv

32.  PARAGRAPH G

In this paragraph, the writer concludes: “There are still huge gaps in our environmental knowledge, and despite the scientific onslaught, many predictions are no more than best guesses.” This means “understanding of climate change remains limited.”
=> ANSWER:  ii

QUESTIONS  33-40: COMPLETE  THE  SUMMARY  OF  PARAGRAPH  C  AND  D.  CHOOSE  NO  MORE  THAN  TWO  WORDS  FROM  THESE PARAGRAPHS.

33.  IT WOULD CLEARLY BE IMPOSSIBLE FOR THE PEOPLE TO ENGAGE IN…. AS A MEANS OF SUPPORTING THEMSELVES.

Keywords: impossible, a means
Looking at paragraph C, we find that: “Farming is out of the question…” So the missing word is “farming”
+ impossible = out of the question
=> ANSWER:  farming

34.  &  35.  FOR  THOUSANDS  OF  YEARS  THEY  HAVE  HAD  TO  RELY  ON  CATCHING  …  AND  …AS  A  MEANS  OF SUSTENANCE.

Keywords: rely on , catching
The  co-ordinator  “and”  gives  us  a  sign  to  find  two  parallel  words.  Continuing  to  read  paragraph  C,  we  have: “Humans first settled in the Arctic a mere 4,500 years ago, surviving by exploiting sea mammals and fish.” So the missing word is “sea mammals” and “fish”.
+ thousands of years ~ 4,500 years
+ catching = exploiting
+ sea mammals and fish = a means of sustenance

=> ANSWER:  sea mammals, fish

36.  THE  ….  PEOPLE  WERE  AN  EXAMPLE  OF  THE  LATTER  AND  FOR  THEM  THE  ENVIRONMENT  DID  NOT  PROVE UNMANAGEABLE.

Keywords: the latter, environment, unmanageable
In  the  end  of  paragraph  C,  it  is  stated  that:   “But  around  a  thousand  years  ago,  one  group  emerged  that  was uniquely well adapted to cope with the Arctic environment. These Thule people moved in from Alaska, …. They are the ancestors of today‟s Inuit people.” Therefore, the Thule people are the latter.
=> ANSWER:  Thule

37.  THE TERRITORY OF NUVANUT CONSISTS OF LITTLE MORE THAN ICE, ROCK AND A FEW…

Keywords: Nuvanut, ice, rock and..
“Ice, rock” cannot be paraphrased, so we merely have to scan these words.  Moving to paragraph D, we find that: “Nuvanut is 1.9 million square kilometres of rock and ice, and a handful of islands around the North Pole.” So the missing word is “islands”.
+ a few = a handful of
=> ANSWER:  islands

38 & 39. IN RECENT YEARS, MANY OF THEM HAVE BEEN OBLIGED TO GIVE UP THEIR …LIFESTYLE, BUT THEY CONTINUE TO DEPEND MAINLY ON ….FOR THEIR FOOD AND CLOTHES.

Keywords: give up, lifestyle, food and clothes.
The fourth sentence in paragraph D is : “Over the past 40 years, most have abandoned their nomadic ways and .., but they still rely heavily on nature to provide food and clothing. “
+ over the past 40 years = in recent years
+ many of them = most
+ give up = abandon
+ still = continue to
+ depend (mainly) on = rely (heavily) on
+ Life style = ways
So the missing words are “nomadic” and “nature”.
=> ANSWER:  nomadic, nature

40.  …PRODUCE IS PARTICULARLY EXPENSIVE.

Keywords: expensive
This  keyword  directs  us  to  the  sentence:  “It  would  cost  a  family  around  £7,000  a  year  to  replace  meat  they obtained themselves through hunting with imported meat. ” The amount of £7,000 means that the produce is particularly expensive, so the missing word is “imported”.
=> ANSWER:  imported

1. B
2. C
3. B
4. F
5. D
6. A
7. E
8. A
9. B
10. A
11. C
12. Competition model
13. 2%
14. I
15. F
16. E
17. D
18. TRUE
19. FALSE
20. NOT GIVEN
21. TRUE
22. NOT GIVEN
23. TRADE
24. COMPONENTS
25. CONTAINER SHIPS
26. TARIFFS
27. i
28. vi
29. iii
30. vii
31. iv
32. ii
33. farming
34. sea mammals
35. fish
36. Thule
37. islands
38. nomadic
39. nature
40. imported

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 5 READING TEST 4 ANSWERS


Cambridge IELTS 5 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 5 reading test 4 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: THE IMPACT OF WILDERNESS TOURISM

QUESTIONS 1 – 3:   CHOOSE THE CORRECT HEADING

=>ANSWER:     

1. III

2. v

3. II

EXPLANATION:

I) THE EXPANSION OF INTERNATIONAL TOURISM IN RECENT YEARS

Keywords: expansion, international tourism

At the beginning of paragraph 1, Section A, the writer says: “The market for tourism in remote areas is blooming as never before”. The writer only refers to the expansion of tourism in remote areas, not to international tourism.

=> Incorrect

II)  HOW LOCAL COMMUNITIES CAN BALANCE THEIR OWN NEEDS WITH THE DEMANDS OF WILDERNESS TOURISM.

Keywords: how, balance, needs, demands, wilderness tourism

Section  C  discusses  how  to  balance  the  needs  of  local  communities  and  demands  for  wilderness  tourism.   For  example: Paragraph  6 states that “Although tourism inevitably affects the region in which it takes place, the cost to these fragile environments  and  their local  cultures  can  be  minimized. Indeed, it  can  even be  a  vehicle  for  reinvigorating local cultures, as has happened with the Sherpas of Nepal’s Khumbu Valley and some Alpine villages.”

+ minimized: reduced, controlled to an appropriate level or standard.

+ reinvigorating: strengthening, boosting

Then, in paragraphs 7, 8 and 9, the writer continues to discuss strategies, solutions and measures which have been taken in the Swiss Alps, Arctic tourist destinations and American Southwest regions.

In paragraph 10, the writer explains: “Merely restricting tourism cannot be the solution to the imbalance, because people’s desire  to  see  new  places  will  not  just  disappear.  Instead,  communities  in  fragile  environments  must  achieve  greater control over tourism ventures in their regions, in order to balance their needs and aspirations with the demands of tourism”.

=>   Section C

III) FRAGILE REGIONS AND THE REASONS FOR THE EXPANSION OF TOURISM THERE.

Keywords: fragile, reasons, expansion of tourism

Paragraph  1  of  Section  A  defines  fragile  regions  as:  ”  highly  vulnerable  to  abnormal  pressure)  not  just  in  terms  of  their ecology, but also in terms of the culture of their inhabitants. The three most significant types of fragile environment in  these respects,  and  also in  terms  of  the  proportion  of  the  Earth’s  surface they cover,  are  deserts,  mountains  and Arctic areas”

In paragraph 2 of  Section A, the writer explains that: “Tourists  are   drawn to these regions  by their natural  landscape beauty  and  the  unique  cultures  of  their  indigenous  people.  And  poor  governments  in  these  isolated  areas  have welcomed  the  new  breed  of  “ adventure  tourist”,  grateful  for  the  hard  currency  they  bring.  For several  years  now, tourism has been the prime source of foreign exchange in Nepal and Bhutan. Tourism is also a key element in the economies of Arctic zones…”

=> Section A

IV:  TRADITIONAL METHODS OF FOOD-SUPPLY IN FRAGILE REGIONS

Keywords: traditional methods, food-supply

Although in Section B, the writer mentions a little about traditional methods of food-supply as “In Arctic and desert societies, year-round survival has traditionally depended on hunting animals and fish and collecting fruit over a relatively short season”, it is not the main idea of Section B. Section B discusses a lot more about the impacts of tourism on the fragile regions in general and on the traditional methods of food-supply in particular.

For example, in paragraph 3 of Section B, the writer argues the effects of tourism on the local community: “Once a location is established as a main tourist destination, the effects on the local community are profound.” And: ” The result has been that many people in these regions have turned to outside supplies of rice and other foods”

Paragraph 4 continues to argue that tourism also influences the hunting and collecting habits of the inhabitants “However, as some inhabitants become involved in tourism, they no longer have time to collect wild food; this has led to increasing dependence on bought food and stores”.

=>  Incorrect

V. SOME OF THE DISRUPTIVE EFFECTS OF WILDERNESS TOURISM

Keywords: disruptive effects, wilderness tourism

disruptive effects = serious decline in farm output, undermine traditional survival systems, erosion.Section B describes the impacts of wilderness tourism in detail:

In paragraph 3 of Section B, the writer says: ” In some hill-regions, this has led to a serious decline in farm output and a change  in  the  local  diet  because  there  is  insufficient  labour  to  maintain  terraces  and  irrigation  systems  and  tend  to crops.”

In  paragraph  4  of  Section  B,  the  writer  says:  “All  kinds  of  wage  labour  or  government  handouts,  tend  to  undermine traditional survival systems”.

In paragraph 5 of  Section B, the writer  says:  “much attention has focused on  erosion  along major trails, but  perhaps  more important are the deforestation and impacts on water supplies”

=> Section B

VI: THE ECONOMIC BENEFITS OF MASS TOURISM

Keywords: benefit, mass tourism

Mass tourism: the act of visiting a destination with large amounts of people at one time. It is not clearly mentioned in Passage 1 that mass tourism can bring about economic benefits to these regions.

In Section B, for example, we learn that:   “hill-farmers…can make more money in a few weeks working as porters for foreign trekkers than they can in a year working in the fields…”  However, as we have already seen from v) above, Section B is mostly about the “disruptive effects” of wilderness tourism.

=> Incorrect

QUESTIONS 4-9:   YES/NO/NOT GIVEN

4)  THE LOW FINANCIAL COST OF SETTING UP WILDERNESS TOURISM MAKES IT ATTRACTIVE TO MANY COUNTRIES

Keywords: low financial cost, wilderness, tourism, attractive

In  paragraph  1  of  Section  A,  the  writer  says:  “The  attraction  of  these  areas  is  obvious:  by  definition,  wilderness  tourism requires little or no initial investment”. low financial cost of setting up = little or no initial investment

=>ANSWER:      YES

5) DESERTS, MOUNTAINS AND ARCTIC REGIONS ARE EXAMPLES OF ENVIRONMENTS THAT ARE BOTH ECOLOGICALLY AND CULTURALLY FRAGILE.

Keywords: deserts, mountains, Arctic, examples, ecologically, culturally, fragile.

In paragraph 1 of Section A, the writer says: “these areas are fragile (i.e. highly vulnerable to abnormal pressures) not just in terms of their ecology, but also in terms of the culture of their inhabitants. The three most significant types of fragile environment  in  these  respects,  and  also  in  terms  of  the  proportion  of  the  Earth‟s  surface  they  cover,  are  deserts, mountains and Arctic areas.”

+ both ecologically and culturally fragile = fragile not just in terms of their ecology but also in terms of the culture

=>ANSWER:         YES

6) WILDERNESS TOURISM OPERATES THROUGHOUT THE YEAR IN FRAGILE AREAS.

Keywords: operate, throughout the year, fragile

In paragraph 1 of Section A, the writer says: ” Consequently,  most human activities, including tourism, are limited to quite clearly defined parts of the year.”

+ are limited to a quite clear defined parts of the year: only take place in certain months or quarters of the year. So, wilderness tourism does not operate throughout the year in fragile areas.

=>ANSWER:          NO

7) THE SPREAD OF TOURISM IN CERTAIN HILL-REGIONS HAS RESULTED IN A FALL IN THE AMOUNT OF FOOD PRODUCED LOCALLY.

Keywords: spread, hill-regions, fall, food, produced, locally

In paragraph 4, Section B, the writer says:  “it is not surprising that they give up their farm-work, which is thus left to others members of the family. In some hill regions, this has led to a serious decline in farm output and a change in the local diet, because there is insufficient labour  to maintain terraces and irrigation systems and tend to crops. The result has been that many people in these regions have turned to outside supplies of rice and other foods.”

+ amount of food = farm output

+ has resulted in a fall in the amount of food produced locally = has led to a serious decline in farm output and a change in the local diet.

=>ANSWER:         YES

8) TRADITIONAL FOOD GATHERING IN DESERT SOCIETIES WAS DISTRIBUTED EVENLY OVER THE YEAR.

Keywords: traditional, food gathering, desert, distributed, evenly, year

In paragraph 4, Section B, the writer says: “In Arctic and desert societies, year-round survival has traditionally depended on hunting animals and fish and collecting fruit over a relatively short season”.

+ traditional food gathering = hunting animals and fish and collecting fruit

+ distributed evenly over the year: took place regularly and frequently through the year >< a relatively short season

=>ANSWER:         NO

9) GOVERNMENT HANDOUTS DO MORE DAMAGE THAN TOURISM DOES TO TRADITIONAL PATTERNS OF FOOD-GATHERING

Keywords: handouts, dangerous, traditional patterns

In paragraph 2 of  Section B, the writer says: “Tourism is not always the culprit behind such changes. All kinds wage labour, or  government  handouts,  tend  to  undermine  traditional  survival  systems”.  This  means  that  besides  tourism, government  handouts  are  also  dangerous  to  traditional  survival  systems,  i.e.  the  patterns  of  food-gathering.  But  the writer does not compare what does more damage to the traditional systems, government handouts or tourism.

=>ANSWER:        NOT GIVEN

QUESTIONS 10 – 13: CHOOSE ONE WORD FROM THE PASSAGE

10) REVIVED PRODUCTION OF …

Keywords: Swiss Pays d‟Enhaut, activity, revived, production.

Positive ways in which some local communities have responded to tourism.

In paragraph 7, Section C, the writer says: “Local concern about the rising number of second home developments in the Swiss Pays “Enhaut resulted in limits being imposed on their growth. There has also been a renaissance in communal cheese production in the area”.

+ revived production = renaissance in communal cheese production

=>ANSWER:    cheese

11) OPERATE …BUSINESSES

Keywords: Arctic communities, operate, businesses

=>ANSWER:   tourism/tourist/ tour

12) PRODUCE AND SELL

Keywords: Acoma, San Ildefonso, produce, sell

In paragraph 9, Section C, the writer says: “The Acoma and San lldefonso pueblos have established highly profitable pottery businesses, while the Navajo and Hopi groups have been similarly successful with jewellery”

+ produce and sell = businesses

=>ANSWER:      pottery

13) PRODUCE AND SELL….

Keywords: Navajo and Hopi, produce, sell

In paragraph 9, Section C, the writer says: “The Acoma and San lldefonso pueblos have established highly profitable pottery businesses, while the Navajo and Hopi groups have been similarly successful with jewellery”

=>ANSWER:     jewellery/ jewelry

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 5 – TEST 4 – PASSAGE 1 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 2: FLAWED BEAUTY: THE PROBLEM WITH TOUGHENED GLASS

QUESTIONS 14 -17:   MATCH EACH PERSON WITH THE CORRECT STATEMENT

14.G

15.A

16.H

17.C

Explanations:

A. SUGGESTS THAT PUBLICITY ABOUT NICKEL SULPHIDE FAILURE HAS BEEN SUPPRESSED.

Keywords: publicity, nickel sulphide failure

In paragraph 3, the writer states that   “What  you hear  is  only the  “tip of  the iceberg”, says  Trevor Ford, a glass expert  at Resolve Engineering in Brisbane, Queenland. He believes the reason is simple: “No-one wants bad press””.

+ publicity = press

+ “Tip of the iceberg”:  a small part of the big problem. Treveor Ford implied that what the public knew about the nickel sulphide failure  was  only  a  small  part  of  the  big  problem.   In  other  words,  Trevor  Ford  suggests  that  publicity  about  nickel sulphide failure has been suppressed or hidden.

=>ANSWER 15:   A

B. REGULARLY SEES CASES OF NICKEL SULPHIDE FAILURE

Keywords: regularly, see, failure

In paragraph 3, the writer states that:  “Others disagree. „On average I  see about  one or two buildings a month suffering from  nickel  sulphide  related  failures,‟  says  Barrie  Josie,  a  consultant  engineer  involved  in  the  Bishops  Walk investigation.  Other  experts  tell  of  similar  experiences.  Tony  Wilmott  of  London-based  consulting  engineers Sandberg, and Simon Armstrong at CladTech Associates in Hampshire both say they know of hundreds of cases.” Barrie Josie, Tony Wilmott, Simon Armstrong see some cases of nickel sulphide related failures.

=>  incorrect

C. CLOSELY EXAMINED ALL THE GLASS IN ONE BUILDING

Keywords: examined, all, one building

In  paragraph  10,  the  writer  says  that:  “John  Barry,  an  expert  in  nickel  sulphide  contamination  at  the  University  of Queensland, analysed every glass pane in the building.”

+ examine = analyse

+ all = every

=>ANSWER:        17.C

D. WAS INVOLVED WITH THE CONSTRUCTION OF BISHOP WALK

Keywords: involve, construction, Bishop Walk

In paragraph 3, the writer says that Barrie Josie was a consultant engineer who was involved in the Bishop Walk investigation, not in the construction of Bishop Walk.

=>   incorrect

Keywords: recommend, rebuilding, Waterfront Place

In paragraph 10, the writer says that John Barry analysed every glass pane in the building of Waterfront Place and “discovered at least another 120 panes with potentially dangerous inclusions which were then replaced”. Barry did not recommend the rebuilding of Waterfront Place.

=>     incorrect

F. THINKS THE BENEFITS OF TOUGHENED GLASS ARE EXAGGERATED.

Keywords: benefits, exaggerated

In paragraph 9, the writer states: “if you experience one nickel sulphide failure in your building, that probably means you’ve got a problem in more than one pane. Josie says that in the last decade he has worked on over 15 buildings with the number of failures into double figures”. So, it is Josie who thinks the benefits of toughened glass are exaggerated, not Brian, Trevor, Graham, John Barry.

=>     incorrect

G. CLAIMS THAT NICKEL SULPHIDE FAILURE IS VERY UNUSUAL

Keywords: nickel sulphide failure, unusual

In paragraph 2, Brian Waldron “insists that cases are few and far between. “It’s a very rare phenomenon”, he says”.

+ unusual = few and far between/ rare phenonmenon

=>ANSWER:   14.G

H. REFERS TO THE MOST EXTREME CASE OF DELAYED FAILURE

Keywords: extreme case, delayed failure

In  paragraph  8,  Graham  Dodd  says,  “the  oldest  pane  of  toughened  glass  known  to  have  failed  due  to  nickel  sulphide inclusions was in in Pilkington’s glass research building in Lathom, Lancashire. The pane was 27 years old”.

=>ANSWER:     16. H

QUESTIONS 18 -23: COMPLETE THE SUMMARY WITH THE LIST OF WORDS

18)  TOUGHENED GLASS  IS FAVOURED BY ARCHITECTS  BECAUSE  IT IS  MUCH STRONGER  THAN ORDINARY  GLASS, AND THE FRAGMENTS  ARE  NOT AS…WHEN IT BREAKS.

Keywords: toughened, architects, stronger, fragments, breaks.

In  paragraph  4,  the  writer  explains:  “Toughened  glass  is  found  everywhere…This  glass  has  five  times  the  strength  of standard glass, and when it does break it shatters into tiny cubes rather than large, razor-sharp shards. Architects love it because large panels can be bolted together to make transparent walls…”

=>ANSWER:    F. sharp

19) HOWEVER, IT HAS ONE DISADVANTAGE: IT CAN SHATTER…

Keywords: disadvantage, shatter

In paragraph 7, the writer explains:  “This leaves  unstable alpha crystals  in the glass,  primed like a coiled spring, ready to revert  to  the  beta  phase  without  warning.”

In  paragraph  8,  the  writer  continues:   “When  this  happens,  the  crystals expand…the  stresses  this  releases  can  shatter  the  whole  sheet…The  time  that  elapses  before  failure  occurs  is unpredictable.”

+ unexpectedly = without warning, unpredictable

=>ANSWER:     I. unexpectedly

20) ORDINARY GLASS IS FIRST HEALED, THEN COOLED VERY…

Keywords: ordinary, healed, cooled,

In paragraph 5, the writer says how toughened glass is manufactured: “It is made by heating a sheet of ordinary glass to about 620 oC to soften it slightly, allowing its structure to expand,  and then cooling it rapidly with jets of cold air.”

+ quickly = rapidly

=>ANSWER:    C. quickly

21) THE OUTER LAYER … BEFORE THE INNER LAYER, AND THE TENSION BETWEEN THE TWO LAYERS WHICH IS CREATED BECAUSE OF THIS MAKES THE GLASS STRONGER.

Keywords: outer layer, before, inner layer.

In paragraph 5, the writer says:  “This causes the outer layer of the pane to contract and solidify before the interior”.

=>ANSWER:    K. contracts

22) HOWEVER, IF THE GLASS CONTAINS NICKEL SULPHIDE IMPURITIES, CRYSTALS OF NICKEL SULPHIDE ARE FORMED. THESE ARE UNSTABLE, AND CAN EXPAND SUDDENLY, PARTICULARLY IF THE WEATHER IS…

Keywords: crystals, nickel sulphide, unstable, expand, weather

In paragraph 6, the writer says: “The problem starts when glass contains nickel sulphide impurities. Trace amounts… As the glass is heated, these atoms react to form tiny crystals of nickel sulphide”

=>ANSWER:        E. warm

23) THE FREQUENCY WITH WHICH SUCH PROBLEMS OCCUR IS… BY GLASS EXPERTS.

Keywords:  frequency, experts

In paragraph 2, Brian Waldon says:  “it‟s a very rare phenomenon”.

In paragraph 3, Barrie Josie says: “On average I see about one or two buildings a month suffering from nickel sulphide related failures”; Tony Wilmott and Simon Armstrong say they know of hundreds of cases; Trevor Ford says: “what you hear is only the tip of the iceberg”.  These experts, therefore, argue about how common the problem is.

=>ANSWER:     L. disputed

QUESTIONS 24 -26:   TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN

24) LITTLE DOUBT WAS EXPRESSED ABOUT THE REASON FOR THE BISHOPS WALK ACCIDENT.

Keywords: little, doubt, reason, Bishops Walk

In paragraph 1, the accident at Bishops Walk shopping centre is mentioned.  The fragments of the glass roof were examined by experts.   “They found that minute crystals of nickel sulphide trapped inside the glass had almost certainly caused the failure”.

+ little doubt = almost certainly

+ reason = caused

=>ANSWER:        TRUE

25) TOUGHENED GLASS HAS THE SAME APPEARANCE AS ORDINARY GLASS.

Keywords: toughened glass, same, appearance, ordinary glass

In  paragraph  5,  the  writer  says:  ”  It  is  made  by  the  heating  a  sheet  of  ordinary  glass  to  about  620°C  to  soften  it  slightly, allowing its structure to expand, and then cooling it rapidly with jets of cold air.”

it = toughened glass

So, the writer only mentions the process of manufacturing toughened glass from ordinary glass. There is no information about the comparison of their appearance.

=>ANSWER:      NOT GIVEN

26) THERE IS PLENTY OF DOCUMENTED EVIDENCE AVAILABLE ABOUT THE INCIDENCE OF NICKEL SULPHIDE FAILURE.

Keywords: plenty, documented evidence, failure

In paragraph 9, the writer says: “Data showing the scale of the nickel sulphide problem is almost impossible to find. The picture is made more complicated by the fact that these crystals occur in batches.”

+ documented evidence = data

+ incidence = scale

+ plenty of documented evidence available >< almost impossible to find

=>ANSWER:      FALSE

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 5 – TEST 4 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE

PASSAGE 3: THE EFFECT OF LIGHT ON PLANTS AND ANIMAL SPECIES

QUESTIONS 27-33:   TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN

27. THERE IS PLENTY OF SCIENTIFIC EVIDENCE TO SUPPORT PHOTOPERIODISM

Keywords: plenty, scientific evidence, photoperiodism

In paragraph 2, the writer says: “The seasonal impact of day length on physiological responses is called photoperiodism, the amount of experimental evidence for this phenomenon is considerable.”

scientific evidence = experimental evidence

plenty = considerable

=>ANSWER:         TRUE

28) SOME TYPES OF BIRD CAN BE ENCOURAGED TO BREED OUT OF SEASON

Keywords: bird, encouraged, breed out of season

In paragraph 2, the writer says: “For example, some species of birds‟ breeding can be induced even in midwinter simply by increasing day length artificially (Wolfson 1964)”.

+ types = species

+ out of season = even in midwinter

=>ANSWER:        TRUE

29) PHOTOPERIODISM IS RESTRICTED TO CERTAIN GEOGRAPHIC AREAS

Keywords: Photoperiodism, restricted, geographic

In paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 the writer refers to temperate zones – those parts of the world with a temperate climate. However, there is no mention of any geographical restriction of photoperiodism.

30)  DESERT ANNUALS ARE EXAMPLES OF LONG-DAY PLANTS

Keywords: desert annuals, long-day plants

In  paragraph  4,  the  writer  says:  “Day-neutral  plants  have  an  evolutionary  advantage  when  the  connection  between  the favourable period for reproduction and day length is much less certain. For example, desert annuals germinate, flower and seed whenever suitable rainfall occurs, regardless of the day length” desert annuals are examples of day-neutral plants, not long-day plants.

31) BAMBOOS FLOWER SEVERAL TIMES DURING THEIR LIFE CYCLE

Keywords: bamboo, flower, several, life cycle

In  paragraph 5, the writer says:  “Bamboos  are perennial  grasses that  remain in a vegetative state for  many years  and  then suddenly flower, fruit and die” Bamboos flower only once in their life, then die.

=>ANSWER:    FALSE

32) SCIENTISTS HAVE YET TO DETERMINE THE CUE FOR CHUSQUEA ABIETIFOLIA’S SEASONAL RHYTHM

Keywords: scientists, Chusquea abietifolia,  cue, seasonal rhythm

In paragraph 5, the writer says: “Every bamboo of the species Chusquea abietifolia …set seed and died during 1884. The next generation of bamboo flowered and died between 1916 and 1918, which suggests a vegetative cycle of about 31 years.

The climatic trigger for this flowering cycle is not yet known, but the adaptive significance is clear. The simultaneous production of masses of bamboo seeds…. is more than all the seed-eating animals can cope with at the time, so that some seeds escape being eaten and grow up to form the next generation (Evans 1976)”.

+ yet to determine = not yet known

+ cue = trigger

+ seasonal rhythm = cycle

=>ANSWER:     TRUE

33) EASTERN HEMLOCK IS A FAST GROWING PLANT

Keywords: hemlock, fast growing

In paragraph 7, the writer states: “Shade-tolerant plants have lower photosynthetic rates  and hence have lower growth rates than those of shade-intolerant species”, and “For example, eastern hemlock seedlings are shade-tolerant.”

+ fast growing plant ><have lower growth rates

=>ANSWER:   FALSE

QUESTIONS 34-40: COMPLETE THE SENTENCES.  CHOOSE NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS FROM THE PASSAGE.

34) DAY LENGTH IS A USEFUL CUE FOR BREEDING IN AREAS WHERE … ARE UNPREDICTABLE

Keywords: day length, cue, breeding

In paragraph 2, the writer states: “Day length is an excellent cue, because it provides a perfectly predictable pattern of change within  the  year.  In  the  temperate  zone  in  spring,  temperatures  fluctuate  greatly  from  day  to  day,  but  day  length increases steadily by a predictable amount”.

+ unpredictable = fluctuate greatly from day to day

=>ANSWER:   temperatures

35) PLANTS WHICH DO NOT RESPOND TO LIGHT LEVELS ARE REFERRED TO AS …

Keywords: plants, not respond, light levels

In paragraph 2, the writer states: “Plants which flower after a period of vegetative growth,  regardless of photoperiod, are known as day-neutral plants”

+ not respond to light levels = regardless of photoperiod

=>ANSWER:   day-neutral plants/day-neutral

36) BIRDS IN TEMPERATE CLIMATES ASSOCIATE LONGER DAY WITH NESTING AND THE AVAILABILITY OF …

Keywords: bird, temperate, associate, longer day, nesting, availability

In paragraph 3, the writer states: “Thus many temperate-zone birds use the increasing day lengths in spring as a cue to begin the nesting cycle, because this is a point when adequate food resources will be assured”

birds in temperate climates = temperate-zone birds

=>ANSWER:     food/ food resources/ adequate food/ adequate food resources

37) PLANTS THAT FLOWER WHEN DAYS ARE LONG OFTEN DEPEND ON … TO HELP THEM REPRODUCE.

Keywords: plant, long, depend, reproduce

In paragraph 4, the writer states: “Long-day plants are adapted for situations that require fertilization by insects, or a long period of seed ripening”.

=>ANSWER:   insects/ fertilization by insects

38)  DESERT ANNUALS RESPOND TO … AS A SIGNAL FOR REPRODUCTION.

Keywords: desert annual, signal, reproduction

In  paragraph  4,  the  writer  states:  “Day-neutral  plants  have  an  evolutionary  advantage  when  the  connection  between  the favourable period for reproduction and day length is much less certain. For example, desert annuals germinate, flower and seed whenever suitable rainfall occurs, regardless of the day length”

+ a signal for reproduction = germinate, flower and seed

=>ANSWER:     rainfall/ suitable rainfall

39) THERE IS NO LIMIT TO THE PHOTOSYNTHETIC RATE IN PLANTS SUCH AS…

Keywords: no limit, photosynthetic rate

In paragraph 6, the writer states: ” Some plants reach maximum photosynthesis at one quarter full sunlight, and others, like sugarcane, never reach maximum, but continue to increase photosynthesis rate as light intensity rises.”

+ no limit = never reach maximum

=>ANSWER:   sugarcane

40) TOLERANCE TO SHADE IS ONE CRITERION FOR THE….OF PLANTS IN FORESTRY AND HORTICULTURE.

Keywords: tolerance to shade, criterion, forestry, horticulture.

In paragraph 7, the  writer states: “Plants in general can be divided into two groups: shade-tolerant species and shade-intolerant species. This classification is commonly used in forestry and horticulture.”

=>ANSWER:     Classification

1. iii
2. v
3. ii
4. YES
5. YES
6. NO
7. YES
8. NO
9. NOT GIVEN
10. cheese
11. tourism/tourist/tour
12. pottery
13. jewellery/jewelery
14. G
15. A
16. H
17. C
18. F
19. I
20. C
21. K
22. E
23. L
24. TRUE
25. NOT GIVEN
26. FALSE
27. TRUE
28. TRUE
29. NOT GIVEN
30. FALSE
31. FALSE
32. TRUE
33. FALSE
34. temperatures
35. day-neutral
36. food resources/adequate food
37. insects/fertilisation by insects
38. rainfall/suitable rainfall
39. sugarcane
40. classification

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 5 READING TEST 3 ANSWERS


Cambridge IELTS 5 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 5 reading test 3 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: EARLY CHILDHOOD EDUCATION

QUESTIONS 1-4:   WHICH PARAGRAPH CONTAINS THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION:

1. Details of the range of family types involved in an education programme

Keywords: details, family types, education programme

In paragraph 6 in  Section D, the writer describes  in  detail  some types of  families, based on  their typical  socio-economic  status  and  age  characteristics:  “The four-year  pilot  study  included  380 families who were about to have their first child and who  represented a cross-section of socio- economic status, age and family configurations. They included single-parent and two-parent families,  families  in  which  both  parents  worked,  and  families  with  either  the  mother  or father at home.”

+ four-year pilot study: a trial survey or study programme carried out over 4 years.

+ cross-section: typical, notable example

=>ANSWER: D

2.Reasons why a child’s early years are so important

Keywords: reasons, child‟s early years, important.

In paragraph 2, Section B, the writer reports that: “by the age of three, most children have the potential  to  understand  about  1000  words  –  most  of  the  language  they  will  use  in  ordinary conversation for the rest of their lives”. This means that language is developed from the very early years of a child. In  paragraph  3,  Section  B,  the  writer  continues  to  argue  that:  “Furthermore,  research  has  shown that while every child is born with a natural curiosity, it can be suppressed dramatically during the second  and  the  third  years  of  life.  Researchers  claim  that  the  human  personality  is  formed during  the  first  two  years  of  life,  and  during  the  first  three  years  children  learn  the  basic skills they will use in all their later learning both at home and at school. Once over the age of three, children continue to expand on existing knowledge of the world”. So, human personality and basic skills are developed in the first two or three  years of life. We see that the child’s early years are so important because their language, personality and skills are formed in this period.

=>ANSWER: B

3. Reasons why an education programme failed

Keywords: reasons, educational programme, failed

Paragraph  4,  Section  C  says  about  an  educational  programme:  “In  an  attempt  to  overcome  that educational  under-achievement,  a  nationwide  programme  called  „Headstart‟  was  launched  in the United States in 1965. A lot of money was poured into it.  It took children into pre-school institutions  at  the  age  of  three  and  was  supposed  to  help  the  children  of  poorer  families succeed in school” Paragraph 5, Section C explains why the programme failed: “Despite substantial funding,  results have  been  disappointing.  It  is  thought  that  there  are  two  explanations  for  this.  First,  the programme began too late.  Many children who entered it at the age of three were already behind their peers in language and measurable intelligence.  Second, the parents were not involved. At the end of each day, “Headstart” children returned to the same disadvantaged home environment.”

+ failed = results have been disappointing

+ reasons = two explanations for this

=>ANSWER: C

4. A description of the positive outcomes of an education programme

Keywords: description, positive, outcomes, programme

In  papragraph 9,  Section  E,  the  writer  says  about  the  “Missouri”  programme  and  its  outcome:

“The  results  were  phenomenal.  By  the  age  of  three,  the  children  in  the  programme  were significantly  more  advanced  in  language  development  than  their  peers,  had  made  greater strides  in  problem  solving  and  other  intellectual  skills,  and  were  further  along  in  social development. In fact, the average child on the programme was performing at the level of the top 15  to  20  per  cent  of  their  peers  in  such  things  as  auditory  comprehension  verbal  ability  and language ability”.

outcomes = results. Positive  outcomes  included  more  significantly  advanced  language  development,  greater  strides in problem solving and intellectual skills, and further social development.

=>ANSWER: E

QUESTIONS 5-10:   WRITE THE CORRECT LETTER A, B, C, OR D.

  1. the “Headstart” programme
  2. the “Missouri” programme
  3. both the “Headstart” and the “Missouri” programmes
  4. neither the  “Headstart” nor the “Headstart” programme

5. Was administered to a variety of poor and wealthy families

Keywords: administered, variety,  poor, wealthy families

Section  D  discusses  the  „Missouri‟  programme.   In  paragraph   6  in  Section  D,  the  writer  says  that: “The  four-year  pilot  study  included  380  families  who  were  about  to  have  their  first  child  and  who represented a cross-section of socio-economic status, age and family configurations.” a variety of poor and wealthy families = a cross-section of socio-economic status

And  in  paragraph  9  in  Section  E,  the  writer  states  that  “At  the  age  of  three,  the  children  who  had been  involved  in  the  „Missouri‟  programme  were  evaluated  alongside  a  cross-section  of  children selected from the same range of socio-economic backgrounds and family situations”

=>ANSWER: B

6. Continued with follow-up assistance in elementary schools

Keywords: follow-up assistance, elementary schools.

Both the “Headstart” and “Missouri” programmes focused on children’s early education before the age of  three.    So  neither  “Headstart” nor  “Missouri” continued  with  further  assistance  in  elementary schools.

=>ANSWER: D

7. Did not succeed in its aim

Keywords: not succeed, aim

Paragraph  5  of  Section  C  reports  on  the  „Headstart‟  programme  and  its  failure:  “Despite  substantial funding, results have been disappointing”.

+ not succeed in its aim = results have been disappointing

=>ANSWER: A

8. Dupplied many forms of support and training to parents

Keywords: support, training, parents

We can see that “Headstart” did not provide support and training to parents, as stated in paragraph 5, Section C that: “Second, the parents were not involved. At the end of each day, “Headstart” children returned to the same disadvantaged home environment”.

The parents were not involved: parents were not the subject of the programme. „Headstart‟ only took children at the age of three to pre-school institutions and taught them in schools. However, the “Missouri” programme offered support and training to parents, as indicated in paragraphs 6 and 7, Section D:   “a pilot programme was launched in Missouri in the US that focused on parents as  the  child’s  first  teachers…  The  programme  involved  trained  parent-educators  visiting  the parent’s  home  and  working  with  the  parent,  or  parents,  and  the  child.  Information  on  child development, and  guidance on  things to look  for and  expect as the  child  grows were provided, plus guidance in fostering the child’s intellectual, language, social and motor-skill development.”

=>ANSWER: B

9. Received insufficient funding

Keywords: insufficient, funding

In paragraphs 4 and 5, the writer says that “Headstart” received substantial funding: “A lot of money was poured into it”. “Missouri”  also  gained  a  lot  of  funding,  as  described  in  paragraph  6,  Section  D:   “As  a  result  of  the growing  research  evidence  of  the  importance  of  the  first  three  years  of  a  child’s  life  and  the disappointing  results  from  that “Headstart” a  pilot  programme  was  launched  in  Missouri  in  the  US  that focused on parents as the child’s first teachers”.   “Missouri”  provided a lot of guidance and support to parents and the children, so it could not have received insufficient funding.

=>ANSWER: D

10. Was designed to improve pre-schooler’s educational development

Keywords: improve, pre-schooler’s education development

Paragraph  6,  Section  D  says  that  “Missouri”  “included  380  families  who  were  about  to  have  their first  child”  and  this  programme  lasted  in  4  years.    During  these  4  years,  the  programme  offered training  and  support  to  the  parents  and  medical  check-ups  for  the  children.  So  this  programme  was designed to improve the pre-schooler’s educational development. Pre-school education : children’s education before 3 – the age of going to school. In   paragraph   4,   Section   C,   the   writer   states   that   “Headstart” “took   children   into   pre-school institutions at the age of three and was supposed to help the children of poorer families succeed in school.”

=>ANSWER: C

QUESTIONS 11-13:   TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN

11. Most  “Missouri”  programme  three-year-olds  scored  highly  in  areas  such  as  listening,  speaking, reasoning and interacting with others.

Keywords: Missouri, scored highly, listening, speaking, reasoning, interacting

Paragraph 9, Section E reports on the results of the “Missouri”  programme. It states that:   “By the age of   three,   the   children   in   the   programme   were   significantly   more   advanced   in   language development  than  their  peers,  had  made  greater  strides  in  problem  solving  and  other  intellectual skills, and were further along in social development.”

+ scored highly = advanced

=>ANSWER:  TRUE

12. “Missouri”  programme  children  of  young,  uneducated,  single  parents  scored  less  highly  on  the tests.

Keywords: Missouri, young, uneducated, single, less highly

In paragraph 10, the writer argues that:  “Most important of all, the traditional measures of “risk”, such as parent’s age and education, or whether they were a single parent, bore little or no relationship to the measures of achievement and language development. Children in the programme performed equally well regardless of socio-economic disadvantages.” Children  of  young,  uneducated,  single  parents  are  examples  of  children  who  have  socio-economic disadvantages.

+ scored less highly >< performed equally well

=>ANSWER:  FALSE

13. The richer families in the „Missouri‟ programme had higher stress levels.

Keywords: richer, families, Missouri, higher, stress

Paragraph 10,  Section E  says that  ” The one factor that was found to  affect  the child‟s development was  family  stress  leading  to  a  poor  quality  of  parent-child  interaction.  That  interaction  was  not necessarily  bad  in  poorer  families”.  This  means  that  both  poor  and  rich  families  may  suffer  from stress,  which  will  affect  the  interaction  between  parents  and  the  child.  However,  the  writer  does  not say that richer families had higher stress levels than poor families.

=>ANSWER:   NOT GIVEN

PASSAGE 2: DISAPPEARING DELTA

QUESTIONS 14-17:  CHOOSE THE CORRECT HEADING

14. iv.  Interrupting a natural process

Keywords: interrupting, natural process

In paragraph B, the writer describes the loss/changes of the sediment that used to flow down the river when  the  two  dams  at  Aswan  were  built.  “Before  the  dams  were  built,  the  Nile  flowed  freely, carrying huge quantities of sediment north from Africa’s interior to be deposited on the Nile delta. This  continued  for  7,000  years”,  …But  when  the  Aswan  dams  were  constructed  in  the  20 century  to  provide  electricity  and  irrigation  “.  most  of  the  sediment  with  its  natural  fertilizer accumulated up above the dam in the southern, upstream half of Lake Nasser, instead of passing down  to  the  delta.”  So,  paragraph  B  describes  the  natural  process  of  sedimentation  and  this  was interrupted by the construction of the two dams, which resulted in serious impacts.

=>ANSWER:  Iv

15. i. Effects of irrigation on sedimentation

Keywords: effects, irrigation, sedimentation

In paragraph D, the writer says that:   “The water in the irrigation canals is still or very slow-moving and thus cannot carry sediment … The sediment sinks to the bottom of the canals and then is added to fields by farmers or pumped with the water into the four large freshwater lagoons that are located near the outer edges of the delta.   So very little of it actually reaches the coastline to replace what is being washed away by the Mediterranean currents.”

+ effects = thus, so

=>ANSWER:   i

16. v. The threat to food production

Keywords: threat, food, production

In paragraph E, the writer describes the impacts  on the food supply:   “The farms on the delta plains and fishing and aquaculture in the lagoons account for much of Egypt‟s food supply.  But by the time the  sediment  has  come  to  rest  in  the  fields  and  lagoons  it  is  loaded  with  municipal,  industrial  and agricultural  waste…These  poisons  can  easily  enter  the  food  chain,  affecting  the  productivity  of fishing and farming.”

+ food production = food chain, food supply

=>ANSWER:   V

17. viii. Looking at the long-term impact

Keywords: long-term, impact

In paragraph F, the writer discusses whether a short–term or long-term solution would be suitable for Egypt. He prefers a long-term solution when looking at the long-term impact: “But there are no easy solutions. In the immediate future, Stanley believes that one solution would be to make artificial floods to flush out the delta waterways, in the same way that natural floods did before the construction of the dams. He says, however, that in the long term an alternative process such as desalination may have to be used to increase the amount of water available”.

=>ANSWER:   VIII

EXPLANATION FOR OTHER HEADINGS:

ii. The danger of flooding the Cairo area: Paragraph B mentions that one of the dam construction’s purposes is to protect “the huge population centre of Cairo and its surrounding areas from annual flooding and drought”. However, it does not refer to the danger of flooding in the Cairo area.
=>ii is incorrect

iii. Causing pollution in the Mediterranean: Paragraph E refers to the pollution /impacts on the food supply of Egypt, not about the pollution in the Mediterranean.
=>iii is incorrect


vi. Less valuable sediment than before: At the end of paragraph D, the writer says that “So very little of it actually reaches the coastline to
replace what is being washed away by the Mediterranean currents”. The writer only says that the amount of sediment to the coastline has reduced, although it has now accumulated in a different region, according to paragraph B.
=>vi is incorrect.

QUESTIONS 18 -23:  YES/ NO/ NOT GIVEN

18. Coastal  erosion  occurred  along  Egypt‟s  Mediterranean  coast  before  the  building  of  the  Aswan dams.

Keywords: coastal, erosion, Egypt‟s Mediterranean coast, before, Aswan dams

In paragraph A, the writer says that:   “The fertile land of the Nile delta is being eroded along Egypt’s Mediterranean  coast  at  an  astounding  rate,  in  some  parts  estimated  at  100  metres  per  year.  In  the past,  land  scoured  away  from  the  coastline  by  the  currents  of  the  Mediterranean  Sea  used  to  be replaced by sediment  brought  down to  the delta by the River Nile, but  this is  no longer happening”. This indicates that the coastal erosion had happened in the past, before they built the dams.

+ coastal erosion = land scoured away from the coastline

=>ANSWER:   YES

19. Some people predicted that the Aswan dams would cause land loss before they were built.

In paragraph   B: ” Up to now, people have blamed this loss of delta land on the two large dams at Aswan in the south of  Egypt which hold back virtually all of the sediment that used to flow down the river”. The writer says: ” people have blamed”,  not predicted.  We do not know if land loss was predicted

=>ANSWER:   NOT GIVEN

20. The Aswan dams were built to increase the fertility of the Nile delta.

Keywords: dams, built, increase, fertility, delta

In  paragraph  B:    “But  when  the  Aswan  dams  were  constructed  in  the  20th  century  to  provide electricity and irrigation, and to protect the huge population centre of Cairo and its surrounding areas   from  annual   flooding   and   drought,   most   of   the   sediment   with   its   natural   fertilizer accumulated  up  above  the  dam  in  the  southern,  upstream  half  of  Lake  Nasser,  instead  of  passing down  to  the  delta.”.  This  means  that  the  construction  of  the  dams  was  intended  to  prevent  flooding and drought in the Cairo area.  The fertility of the Nile delta actually decreased as a result. + increase the fertility of the delta>< sediment with natural fertilizer accumulated…,instead of passing down the delta

=>ANSWER:   NO

21. Stanley found that levels of sediment in the river water in Cairo were relatively high.

Keywords:  Stanley, levels of sediment, river water, Cairo, high.

In paragraph C, the writer states that:  “Daniel Jean Stanley of the Smithsonian Institute noticed that water  samples  taken  in  Cairo,  just  before  the  river  enters  the  delta,  indicated  that  the  river sometimes carries more than 850 grams of sediment per cubic metre of water – almost half of what it carried before the dams were built”. And “There is still a lot of sediment coming into the delta, but  virtually  no  sediment  comes  out  into  the  Mediterranean  to  replenish  the  coastline.    So  this sediment must be trapped on the delta itself.”

+ relatively high = still a lot

=>ANSWER:   YES

22. Sediment in the irrigation canals on the Nile delta causes flooding.

Keywords: sediment, irrigation canals, causes, flooding

In  paragraph  D,  the  writer  says  about  the  sediment  in  the  canal  that:   “The  water  in  the  irrigation canals is still or very slow-moving and   thus cannot carry sediment, Stanley explains”.   And “so very little of it  actually reaches the coastline to  replace what  is  being washed  away by the Mediterranean currents”. However, the writer does not say that the sediment causes flooding.

=>ANSWER:   NOT GIVEN

23. Water is pumped from the irrigation canals into the lagoons.

In paragraph D, the writer says that:   “Sediment sinks to the bottom of the canals and then is added to fields by farmers or pumped with the water into the four large fresh-water lagoons that are located near the outer edges of the delta”.

+ water is pumped = pumped with the water

=>ANSWER:   YES

QUESTIONS 24-26:  COMPLETE THE SUMMARY OF PARAGRAPHS E AND F

24. In  addition  to  the  problem  of  coastal  erosion,  there  has  been  a  marked  increase  in  the  level  of ¼contained in the silt deposited in the Nile delta.

Keywords: marked, increase

In   Paragraph   E:”   Pollutants   are   building   up   faster   and   faster‟,   says   Stanley.     Based   on   his investigations of sediment from the delta lagoons, Frederic Siegel of George Washington University concurs.  “In  Manzalah  Lagoon,  for  example,  the  increase  in  mercury,  lead,  copper  and  zinc coincide with the building of the High Dam at Aswan”.

+ a marked increase in pollutants = pollutants are building up faster and faster/The increase in mercury, lead, copper and zinc

=>ANSWER:   [pollutants]

25. To deal with this, Stanley suggests the use of…in the short term,

Keywords: Stanley, use, short term

In  Paragraph  F,  the  writer  says  that:   “In  the  immediate  future,  Stanley  believes  that  one  solution would  be  to  make  artificial  floods  to  flush  out  the  delta  waterways,  in  the  same  way  that  natural floods did before the construction of the dams”.

+ in the short term = in the immediate future

=>ANSWER:   [artificial floods]

26. and increasing the amount of water available through …in the longer term

Keywords: increasing, amount of water, longer term

In paragraph F, the writer states that:  “He says, however, that in the long term an alternative process such as desalination may have to be used to increase the amount of water available”.

=>ANSWER:   [desalination]

PASSAGE 3: THE RETURN OF ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE

QUESTIONS 27-31:

Which paragraph contains the following information:

27. How AI might have a military impact

Keywords: how, AI, military impact

In  Paragraph  E,  it  is  stated  that  ”  HNC  claim  that  their  system,  based  on  a  cluster  of  30  processors, could be used to spot camouflaged vehicles on a battlefield or extract a voice signal from a noisy background  –   tasks  humans  can  do  well,  but  computers  cannot”.   So  AI  can  be  used  for  military purposes in order to detect camouflaged vehicles on a battlefield.

+ military = camouflaged vehicles, battlefield

=>ANSWER:   E

28. The fact that AI brings together a range of separate research areas

Keywords: AI, together, separate research areas

In Paragraph B, the writer says that:   “The expression provided an attractive but informative name for a research programme that encompassed such previously disparate fields as operations research, cybernetics, logic and computer science.”

+ separate = disparate

+ brings together a range of separate research areas = encompassed such previously disparate fields as operation research, cybernetics, logic and computer science

=>ANSWER:   B

29. The reason why AI has become a common topic of conversation again

Keywords: reason, common topic, conversation, again

In   paragraph   A,  the  writer  indicates  that:     “After   years  in   the  wilderness,   the  term   „artificial intelligence‟  (AI)  seems  poised  to  make  a  comeback.  AI  was  big  in  the  1980s  but  vanished  in  the 1990s.  It  re-entered  public consciousness  with the release of  AI, a movie about  a robot  boy. This has  ignited  public debate  about  AI, but  the term  is  also  being used once more within the computer industry”.  This  explains  that  AI  has  become  a  common  topic  of  conversation  again  because  of  the release of AI, a movie about a robot boy.

+ became a topic of conversation again = re-entered public consciousness

=>ANSWER:   A

30. How   AI   could   help   deal   with   difficulties   related   to   the   amount   of   information   available electronically.

Keywords: deal with, difficulties, amount of information, electronically

In   paragraph   F,   the   writer   says   that:     “In   particular,   the   problem   of   information   overload, exacerbated by the growth of e-mail and the explosion in the number of web pages, means there are plenty of opportunities for new technologies to help filter and categorise information – classic AI problems.

+ difficulties = problems

+ amount of information available = information overload, i.e. the growth of e-mail and the explosion in the number of web pages

=>ANSWER:   F

31. Where the expression AI was first used.

Keywords: where, expression, first, used

In paragraph B, the writer says that:   “The field was launched, and  the term „artificial intelligence‟ coined,  at  a  conference  in  1956  by  a  group  of  researchers  that  included  Marvin  Minsky,  John McCarthy,  Herbert  Simon  and  Alan  Newell,  all  of  whom  went  on  to  become  leading  figures  in  the field.

+ first used = coined

+ the expression AI = the term „Artificial intelligence‟

=>ANSWER:   B

QUESTIONS 32-37:  TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN

32. The researchers who launched the field of AI had worked together on other projects in the past.

Keywords: researchers, AI, worked together, other projects, past

Paragraph  B  says:    “That  said,  different  groups  of  researchers  attacked  different  problems,  from speech recognition to chess playing, in different  ways; AI unified the field in name only”.  It means that a lot  of researchers  working on different  problems and in  different  ways worked together in  the field of AI, but we do not know if they had worked together on other projects before.

=> NOT GIVEN

33. In 1985, AI was at its lowest point.

Keywords: 1985, lowest, point

In paragraph C, the writer says that:  “Most researchers agree that AI peaked around 1985”.

+ lowest point ><peaked

=>ANSWER:    FALSE

34. Research into agent technology was more costly than research into neural networks.

Keywords: research, agent, technology, costly, neural, networks

Paragraph   C   states   that:      “Then   when   people   realised   these   were   hard   problems,   there   was retrenchment.  By  the  late  1980s,  the  term  AI  was  being  avoided  by  many  researchers,  who  opted instead   to   align   themselves   with   specific   sub-disciplines   such   as   neural   networks,   agent technology, case-based reasoning, and so on”.

+ retrenchment: cutting down expenses, cost reduction.

+ The  writer  gives  no  information  about  the  cost  comparison  between  research  into  agent  technology and research into neural networks.

=>ANSWER:    NOT GIVEN

35. Applications of AI have already had a degree of success.

Keywords: AI, degree of success

In  paragraph  C,  we  learn  that:   “Prototypes   of  medical-diagnosis  programs  and  speech-recognition software appeared to be making progress…”   Then, in paragraph D, the writer says that:   “Ironically, in some ways AI was a victim of its own success”. a degree of success = making progress

=>ANSWER:    TRUE

36. The problems waiting to be solved by AI have not changed since 1967

Keywords: problems, solved, not changed, 1967

In  paragraph  C,  the  writer  states  that:    “Marvin  Minsky  said  in  1967  that  within  a  generation  the problem  of  creating  „artificial  intelligence‟  would  be  substantially  solved”.    However,  in  fact,  it proved  to  be  a  failure.  Therefore,  “By  the  late  1980,  the  term  AI  was  being  avoided  by  many researchers,  who  opted  instead  to  align  themselves  with  specific  sub-disciplines  such  as  neural networks, agent technology, case-based reasoning, and so on”. Furthermore, in paragraph D, the writer says that ” Meanwhile, the technologies that made it onto the market, such as speech recognition, language translation and decision-support software, were no longer regarded as AI. Yet all three once fell well within the umbrella of AI research.” three once fell  well  within  the umbrella of  AI research:  speech recognition,  language translation and decision-support software used to be areas of AI research.   But later they were no longer regarded as AI.

=>this evidence shows that problems waiting to be solved by AI have changed since 1967

=>ANSWER:    FALSE

37. The film 2001: A Space Odyssey reflected contemporary ideas about the potential of AI computers

Keywords: 2001: A space Odyssey, reflected, ideas, potential, AI computers

In paragraph G, the writer says that “The 1969 film, 2001: A space Odyssey, featured an intelligent computer  called  HAL 9000.  As  well  as  understanding  and  speaking English,  HAL  could  play chess and  even  learned  to  lipread.  HAL  thus  encapsulated  the  optimism  of  the  1960s  that  intelligent computers would be widespread by 2001”.

+ reflected contemporary ideas = encapsulated the optimism of the 1960s

=>ANSWER:    TRUE

QUESTIONS 38-40:  CHOOSE THE CORRECT LETTER

38. According to researchers, in the late 1980s there was a feeling that…

B: original expectations of AI may not have been justified.

In  paragraph  C,  the  writer  says  that:    “There  was  undue  optimism  in  the  early  1980s” says  David Leake, a researcher at Indiana University. “Then when people realised there were hard problems, there was retrenchment. By the late 1980s, the term AI was being avoided by many researchers, who opted instead   to align themselves with specific sub-disciplines such as neural networks,   agent technology, case-based reasoning, and so on”.

+ original expectations of AI = overdue optimism in the early 1980s

+ [not] justified = undue

This  means  that  there  was  at  first  optimism  about  the  possibilities  of  AI.   Then,  researchers  and  the public realised in the late 1980s that there were many hard problems to overcome.

=>ANSWER:     B

39. In Dr Leake’s opinion, the reputation of AI suffered as a result of….

A. changing perceptions

In paragraph G, the writer says that:  “It may be, however, that the comparison with HAL no longer seems quite so important, and AI  can now be judged by what it can do, rather than by how well it matches up to a 30-year-old science-fiction film. “People are beginning to realise that there are impressive things that these systems can do”, says Dr Leake hopefully”

+ the reputation of AI = judged by how well it matches up to a 30-year old science-fiction film

+ changing perceptions = comparison with HAL no longer seems quite so important

=>ANSWER:    A

40. The prospects for AI may benefit from….

D. New investment priorities.

In  paragraph  F,  the  writer  says  that:   “Another  factor  that  may  boost  prospects  for  AI  in  the  near future  is  that  investors  are  looking  for  firms  using  clever  technology,  rather  than  just  a  clever business model, to differentiate themselves.

+ benefit from = factor that may boost

=>ANSWER:     D

1. D
2. B
3. C
4. E
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. C
11. TRUE
12. FALSE
13. NOT GIVEN
14. iv
15. i
16. v
17. viii
18. YES
19. NOT GIVEN
20. NO
21. YES
22. NOT GIVEN
23. YES
24. F
25. A
26. B
27. E
28. B
29. A
30. F
31. B
32. NOT GIVEN
33. FALSE
34. NOT GIVEN
35. TRUE
36. FALSE
37. TRUE
38. B
39. A
40. D

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 5 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS


Cambridge IELTS 5 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 5 reading test 2 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: BAKELITE – THE BIRTH OF MODERN PLASTICS

QUESTIONS 1-3:  CHOOSE ONE WORD ONLY FROM THE PASSAGE FOR EACH ANSWER.

1. SOME  PLASTICS  BEHAVE  IN  A  SIMILAR  WAY  TO….IN  THAT  THEY  MELT  UNDER  HEAT  AND  CAN  BE  MOULDED  INTO  NEW FORMS.

Keywords: similar, melt, moulded

In  paragraph  2,  the  writer  says  that:  “Some  are  „thermoplastic‟,  which  means  that,  like  candlewax,  they melt when heated and can be reshaped”. This means that some plastics,such as thermoplastics, have similar  characteristics  to  candlewax:  they  melt  under  heat  (melt  when  heated)  and  can  be  moulded (reshaped).

+ a similar way to = like

+ moulded = reshaped

=>ANSWER: candlewax

2. BAKELITE WAS UNIQUE BECAUSE IT WAS THE FIRST MATERIAL TO BE BOTH ENTIRELY…..IN ORIGIN, AND THERMOSETTING.

Keywords: unique, first, entirely

At  the  end  of  paragraph  2,  the  writer  states  that  “Bakelite  had  the  distinction  of  being  the  first  totally synthetic thermosetting plastic”

+ to be unique = to have the distinction of

+ entirely = totally

=>ANSWER: synthetic

3. THERE WERE SEVERAL REASONS FOR THE RESEARCH INTO PLASTICS IN THE NINETEENTH CENTURY, AMONG THEM THE GREAT ADVANCES THAT HAD BEEN MADE IN THE FIELD OF… AND THE SEARCH FOR ALTERNATIVES TO NATURAL RESOURCES LIKE IVORY.

Keywords: nineteenth century, great advances, field, ivory

In  paragraph  3,  the  writer  reports  that:  “The  impetus  behind  the  development  of  these  early  plastics  was generated by a number of factors- immense technological progress  in the domain of chemistry, coupled  with  wider  cultural  changes,  and  the  pragmatic  need  to  find  acceptable  substitutes  for dwindling supplies of „luxury‟ materials such as tortoise shell and ivory.”

+ several reasons for = generated by a number of factors

+ great advances = immense technological progress

+ field = domain

+ search = find

+ alternatives = substitutes

=>ANSWER: chemistry

QUESTIONS 4-8:  COMPLETE THE FLOW CHART.  CHOOSE ONE WORD FROM THE PASSAGE FOR EACH ANSWER

4. NOVALAK

Keywords: phenol, formaldehyde, combine under vacuum, resin

In  paragraph  5,  the  writer  says  that  ”  The  original  patent  outlined  a  three-stage  process,  in  which  phenol and formaldehyde (from wood or coal) were initially combined under vacuum inside a large egg- shaped kettle. The result was a resin known as Novalak”

5. FILLERS

Keywords: e.g, cotton, asbestos

In  paragraph  5,  the  writer  says  that  “Other  substances  were  then  introduced:  including  fillers,  such  as wood flour, asbestos or cotton, which increase strength and moisture resistance.” e.g (for example)  = such as

6. HEXA

Keywords: ammonia, formaldehyde

In paragraph 5, the writer refers to: “catalysts (substances to speed up the reaction between two chemicals without  joining  to  either)  and  hexa,  a  compound  of  ammonia  and  formaldehyde  which  supplied  the additional formaldehyde necessary to form a thermosetting resin.”We understand that hexa  is a compound of ammonia and formaldehyde, so two arrows of ammonia and formaldehyde in the chart make up hexa.

7. RAW

Keywords: cool, hardened, break up, grind, Bakelite, stage two resin

In paragraph 5, the writer says: “This resin was then left to cool and harden, and ground up a second time. The  resulting  granular  powder  was  raw  Bakelite,  ready  to  be  made  into  a  vast  range  of  manufactured objects.”

+ stage two resin = a second time

+ grind = ground (past simple tense)

8. PRESSURE

Keywords:  pour, mould, intense heat

In  paragraph  5,  the  writer  states  that:  ”  In  the  last  stage,  the  heated  Bakelite  was  poured  into  a  hollow mould of the required shape and subjected to extreme heat and pressure, thereby „setting‟ its forms for life”. We realise that in paragraph 5, the writer describes the moulding process by using the passive voice, whereas, questions in the flow chart are inthe active voice. For example:

+ pour =>poured

+ apply intense heat =>subjected to extreme heat

+ intense = extreme

QUESTIONS 9-10: CHOOSE TWO LETTERS, A-E

Which two of the following factors influencing the design of Bakelite objects are mentioned in the text?

QUESTIONS 9-10. ANSWER:   B, C

A. the function which the object would serve

Keywords: function, object, serve

In the first sentence of paragraph 6, the writer states that “The design of Bakelite objects, everything from earrings to television sets, was governed to a large extent by the technical requirements of the moulding process”.  This  is  the  topic  sentence  of  the  paragraph,  indicating  that  the  design  of  Bakelite  objects  are influenced  by  the  technical  requirements  of  the  moulding  process,  whatever  the  object‟s    functions  are (earrings or televisions). So option A is false.

B. the ease with which the resin could fill the mould

Keywords: ease, fill, mould

In paragraph 6, the writer says that “Moulds had to be carefully designed so that the molten Bakelite would flow  evenly  and  completely  into  the  mould.  Sharp  corners  proved  impractical  and  were  thus  avoided, giving rise to the smooth, “streamlined” style popular in the 1930s.

+ fill = flow completely into evenly, completely, smooth, streamlined indicate the ease with which the resin can fill the mould.

So the answer is B

C . The facility with which the object could be removed from the mould

Keywords: removed, mould

In  paragraph  6,  the  writer  states  that  ”  The  object  could  not  be  designed  so  that  it  was  locked  into  the mould  and  therefore  difficult  to  extract”,  therefore  “objects  should  taper  towards  the  deepest  part  of the  mould,  and  if  necessary the  product  was  moulded  in  separate  pieces”  –  so  that  the  objects  will  be easily removed from the mould.

+ taper toward: progressively narrow or reduce in thickness towards one end

+ remove = extract

So the answer is C

D. the limitations of the materials used to manufacture the mould

Keywords: limitations, materials, manufacture

Actually the writer only mentions the limitations of shapes/forms of the mould: “The thickness of the walls of  the  mould  was  also  crucial:  thick  walls  took  longer  to  cool  and  harden,  a  factor  which  had  to  be considered  by the  designer  in  order  to  make  the  most  efficient  use  of  machines…  Sharp  corners  proved impractical and were thus avoided”. He does not mention the limitations of the materials used to make the moulds crucial: very important and of great influence on the design of products.

=>D is false

E. the fashionable styles of the period

Keywords: fashionable styles, period

In paragraph 6, the writer says that:   “Sharp corners proved impractical and were thus avoided,  giving rise to the smooth, „streamlined‟ style popular in the 1930s”.  This means that the old styles in the 1930s are still in use and practical, not the fashionable styles.

=>E is false

QUESTIONS 11-13:   TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN

11. MODERN-DAY PLASTIC PREPARATION IS BASED ON THE SAME PRINCIPLES AS THAT PATENTED IN 1907

Keywords: modern-day, preparation, patented, 1907

At the end of paragraph 4, the writer states that: “On 13 July 1907, Baekeland took out his famous patent describing  this  preparation,  the  essential  features  of  which  are  still  in  use  today”.So,  the  statement  is true.

+ principles = essential features

=>ANSWER: TRUE

12. BAKELITE WAS IMMEDIATELY WELCOMED AS A PRACTICAL AND VERSATILE MATERIAL.

Keywords: immediately, welcomed

In  paragraph  7,  the  writer  indicates  that  “Baekeland’s  invention,  although  treated  with  disdain  in  its early  years,  went  on  to  enjoy  an  unparalleled  popularity  which  lasted  throughout  the  first  half  of  the twentieth century.   It became…the material of a thousand uses.”So at first, Bakelite was not welcomed by the community.

+ immediately = early years

+ welcomed>< treated with disdain

+ practical and versatile material = material of a thousand uses

=>ANSWER: FALSE

13. BAKELITE WAS ONLY AVAILABLE IN A LIMITED RANGE OF COLOURS.

Keywords: only available, limited, colours

In  the  last  paragraph,  the  writer  says  that  “consumers  everywhere  relishedits  dazzling  array  of  shades, delighted that they were now, at last, no longer restricted to the wood tones and drab browns of the pre- plastic era.”

+ limited = restricted

=>ANSWER: FALSE

PASSAGE 2: WHAT’S SO FUNNY?

QUESTIONS 14-20:   TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN

14. ARTHUR KOESTLER CONSIDERED LAUGHTER BIOLOGICALLY IMPORTANT IN SEVERAL WAYS

Keywords: Arthur Koestler, biologically, important

Paragraph 1 states that “The writer Arthur Koestler dubbed it the luxury reflex: „unique in that it serves no apparent biological purpose‟

+ biologically important >< no apparent biological purpose

=>ANSWER: FALSE

15. PLATO BELIEVED HUMOUR TO BE A SIGN OF ABOVE-AVERAGE INTELLIGENCE

Keywords: Plato,above-average, intelligence

In paragraph 2, the writer says that:” Plato expressed the idea that humour is simply a delighted feeling of superiority  over  others”. Thus,  it  is  only  a  feeling  of  superiority,  but  the  passage  does  not  mention superiority in intelligence.

+ above-average = superiority over others

=>ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

16. KANT BELIEVED THAT A SUCCESSFUL JOKE INVOLVES THE CONTROLLED RELEASE OF NERVOUS ENERGY

Keywords: Kant, release, nervous energy

In  paragraph  2,  we  find:  “Kant  and  Freud  felt  that  joke-telling  relies  on  building  up  apsychic tension which is safely punctured by the ludicrousness of the punchline”.

+release = punctured

+ nervous energy = psychic tension

=>ANSWER: TRUE

17. CURRENT THINKING ON HUMOUR HAS LARGELY IGNORED ARISTOTLE‟S VIEW ON THE SUBJECT

Keywords: current, largely, ignored, Aristotle

At the end of paragraph 2, the writer says that: “But most modern humour theorists have settled on some version  of  Aristotle‟s  belief  that  jokes  are  based  on  a  reaction  to  or  resolution  of  incongruity,  when  the punchline is either a nonsense or, though appearing silly, has a clever second meaning.”

+ current = modern

+ largely = most

+ ignored>< settle on: to consolidate, to follow the idea of Aristotle

+ view = belief

=>ANSWER: FALSE

Keywords: Graeme Ritchie, artificial, intelligence

In paragraph 3, the writer says that “Graeme Ritchie, a computational linguist in Edinburgh, studies the linguistic structure of jokes in order to understand not only humour but language understanding and reasoning in machines”, and “Viewed from this angle, humour is just a form of creative insight,a sudden leap to a new perspective”.   Artificial intelligence: the intelligence of machines, computers which are created/programmed by humans.

+ Link to artificial intelligence = reasoning in machines

=>ANSWER: TRUE

19. MOST COMEDIANS USE PERSONAL SITUATIONS AS A SOURCE OF HUMOUR.

Keywords: comedians, personal situations, source of humour

In  paragraph  3,  the  writer  reports  that:”  He  says  that  while  there  is  no  single  format  for  jokes,  many revolve around a sudden and surprising conceptual shift. A comedian will present a situation followed by  an  unexpected  interpretation  that  is  also  apt”.   This  means  there  are  a  lot  of  different  ways  to  tell  a joke, for example, using  a sudden, surprising/unexpected situation. He does not  mention  if comedians use personal situations to create humour.

=>ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

20. CHIMPANZEES MAKE PARTICULAR NOISES WHEN THEY ARE PLAYING.

Keywords: chimpanzees, noises, playing

Paragraph  5  indicates  that:  “Chimpanzees  have  a  „play-face‟  –  a  gaping  expression  accompanied  by  a panting „ah,ah” noise. accompanied by: together with.

=>ANSWER: TRUE

QUESTIONS 21-23: LABEL THE DIAGRAM.  CHOOSE NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS FROM THE PASSAGE.

21. RIGHT PREFRONTAL CORTEX LIGHTS UP – AREA OF BRAIN LINKED TO ……

Keywords: right prefrontal cortex, light up

In  paragraph  8,  the  writer  says  that  “His  scans  showed  that  at  the  beginning  of  a  joke  the  listener’s prefrontal cortex lit up, particularly the right prefrontal believed to be critical for problem solving”

+ Light up = lit up (past simple tense)

=>ANSWER: problem solving

22. ….BECOME ACTIVE TOO

Keywords: active, too

In paragraph 8, the writer says that: “But there was  also activity in the temporal lobes at the side of the head (consistent with attempts to rouse stored knowledge) and in many other brain areas.”

+ active = activity

+ too = also

=>ANSWER: temporal lobes

23. ORBITAL PREFRONTAL CORTEX IS ACTIVATED – INVOLVED WITH …

Keywords: orbital prefrontal cortex, activated, involved

Paragraph 8 says that: “Then when the punchline arrived, a new area sprang to life – the orbital prefrontal cortex. This patch of brain tucked behind the orbits of the eyes is associated with evaluating information”

+ activated = sprang to life

+ involved with = associated with

=>ANSWER: evaluating information

QUESTIONS 24-27:

Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-G:

24. ONE OF THE BRAIN’S MOST DIFFICULT TASKS IS TO…..

Keywords; brain, most difficult task

In paragraph 9, the writer states that: “Making a rapid emotional assessment of the events of the moment is an extremely demanding job for the brain, animal or human” C. respond instantly to whatever is happening = making a rapid emotional assessment of the events of the moment.

+ difficult task = demanding job

=>ANSWER: C

25. BECAUSE OF THE LANGUAGE THEY HAVE DEVELOPED, HUMANS…

Keywords: language, developed, humans

In  paragraph  10,  the  writer  states  that:    “All  warm-blooded  animals  make  constant  tiny  adjustments  in arousal  in  response  to  external  events,  but  humans,  who  have  developed  a  much  more  complicated internal  life  as  a  result  of  language  respond  emotionally  not  only  to  their  surroundings  but  to  their own thoughts.” A.  react to their own thoughts.

+ react = respond

=>ANSWER: A

26. INDIVIDUAL RESPONSES TO HUMOUR….

Keywords: individual, responses, humour

The  last  sentence  of  paragraph  10  states  that:  “Whether  a  joke  gives  pleasure  or  pain  depends  on  a person‟s  outlook”.   This  means  that  what  a  person  feels  about  a  joke  depends  on  his  personal  ideas  and beliefs, his own views.

F. relate to a person‟s subjective views

+ a person‟s subjective views = a person‟s outlook

=>ANSWER: F

27. PETER DERKS BELIEVES THAT HUMOUR ….

Keywords: Peter Derks, believes, humour

The last sentence of paragraph 11 explains that:   “If we can figure out how the mind processes humour, then we‟ll have a pretty good handle on how it works in general”. Peter Derks believes that if we know how the mind/brain processes humour, we can know how the brain works in general. D. may provide valuable information about the operation of the brain.

+ brain = mind

=>ANSWER: D

PASSAGE 3: THE BIRTH OF SCIENTIFIC ENGLISH

QUESTIONS 28-34: COMPLETE THE SUMMARY.  CHOOSE NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS FROM THE PASSAGE.

28. IN EUROPE, MODERN SCIENCE EMERGED AT THE SAME TIME AS THE NATION STATE. AT FIRST, THE SCIENTIFIC LANGUAGE OF CHOICE REMAINED…

Keywords: modern science, at the same time, nation, at first, scientific language

At the end of paragraph 1, the writer says that: “Given the prominence of scientific English today, it may seem surprising that no one really knew how to write science in English before the 17th  century. Before that, Latin  was  regarded  as  the  lingua  franca  for  European  intellectuals”.  Before  the  17th  century,  the scientific language was Latin (lingua franca: a language which is used for communication between groups of people who speak different languages).

=>ANSWER:  Latin

29. SOMETIMES THE DESIRE TO PROTECT IDEAS SEEMS TO HAVE BEEN STRONGER THAN THE DESIRE TO COMMUNICATE THEM, PARTICULARLY IN THE CASE OF MATHEMATICIANS AND..

Keywords: protect ideas, mathematicians

At the end of paragraph 6, the writer states that: “And in the mid-17th    century it was common practice for mathematicians  to  keep  their  discoveries  and  proofs  secret,  by  writing  them  in  cipher,  in  obscure languages, or in private messages deposited in a sealed box with the Royal Society. Some scientists might have  felt  more  comfortable  with  Latin  precisely  because  its  audience,  though  international,  was socially restricted. Doctors clung the most keenly to Latin as an „insider language.”

+ protect ideas = keep their discoveries and proofs secret

Scientists were keen on Latin because its audience was socially restricted (i.e. not many people knew Latin). Doctors  considered  Latin  as  an  “insider  language‟  –  the  language  only  used  among  doctors,  so  that  they could keep their discoveries and proofs secret.

=>ANSWER: doctors

QUESTION 30 AND 31:

30 – 31. IN BRITAIN, MOREOVER, SCIENTISTS WORRIED THAT ENGLISH HAD NEITHER THE …NOR THE …..TO EXPRESS THEIR IDEAS.

Keywords: English, neither, nor, express the ideas

In paragraph 7, the writer argues that:   “A third reason why the writing of original science in English was delayed may have been to do with the linguistic inadequacy of English in the early modern period.”

+ may have been to do with = may have related to

“English  was  not  well  equipped  to  deal  with  scientific  argument.  First,  it  lacked  the  necessary technical vocabulary. Second, it lacked the grammatical resources required to represent the world in an objective  and  impersonal  way,  and  to  discuss  the  relations,  such  as  cause  and  effect,  that  might  hold between complex and hypothetical entities”

+ the ideas = hypothetical entities

Linguistic inadequacy included the lack of necessary technical vocabulary and grammatical resources

=>ANSWER: technical vocabulary; grammatical resources

32. THIS  SITUATION  ONLY  CHANGED  AFTER  1660  WHEN  SCIENTISTS  ASSOCIATED  WITH  THE  …SET  ABOUT  DEVELOPING ENGLISH.  AN  EARLY  SCIENTIFIC  JOURNAL  FOSTERED  A  NEW  KIND  OF  WRITING  BASED  ON  SHORT  DESCRIPTIONS  OF  SPECIFIC EXPERIMENTS.

Keywords: after 1660, associated, developing English.

Paragraphs 8 and 9 refer to the years 1664 and 1665 and illustrate the cooperation between scientists and the Royal Society in developing English:”the society‟s members did a great deal to foster the publication of science in English and to encourage the development of a suitable writing style… many members of the Royal Society also published monographs in English”

+ associated with: members

=>ANSWER: Royal Society

33. ALTHOUGH ENGLISH WAS THEN OVERTAKEN BY…

Keywords: overtaken

In the last paragraph, the writer says that: “In the following century much  of this momentum was lost  as German established itself as the leading European language of science.”

+ overtaken: left behind = this momentum was lost

=>ANSWER: German

34. IT DEVELOPED AGAIN IN THE 19TH CENTURY AS A DIRECT RESULT OF THE …

Keywords: developed, 19th   century, result

At  the  end  of  paragraph 10,  the  writer  says  that:  “However,  in  the  19th  century scientific  English again enjoyed substantial  lexical  growth as  the  industrial  revolution  created  the  need   for  new  technical vocabulary,  and new, specialised, professional  societies were instituted to  promote and publish in  the new disciplines.”

+ developed again = again enjoyedsubstantial lexical growth

+ as a direct result of = as the industrial revolution created

=>ANSWER: industrial revolution

QUESTIONS 35-37: TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN

35. THERE WAS STRONG COMPETITION BETWEEN SCIENTISTS IN RENAISSANCE EUROPE.

Keywords: competition, scientists, Renaissance Europe

In paragraph 2, the writer says that ” The European Renaissance (c/14   -16    century) is sometimes called the  „revival  of  learning‟,  a  time  of  renewed  interest  in  the  „lost  knowledge‟  of  classical  times. At  the same time, however, scholars also began to test and extend this knowledge. The emergent nation states of Europe  developed  competitive  interests  in  world  exploration  and  the  development  of  trade.”  We  see that  in  the  European  Renaissance,  scholars  tested  and  developed  the  knowledge  of  classical  times,  and countries  in  Europe  competed  with  one  another  in  world  exploitation  and  the  development  of  trade. However, there is no information about competition between scientists in the passage.

=>ANSWER: NOT GIVEN

36. THE MOST IMPORTANT  SCIENTIFIC DEVELOPMENT OF THE RENAISSANCE PERIOD WAS THE DISCOVERY OF MAGNETISM.

Keywords: most important, Renaissance, discovery of magnetism

At the end of paragraph  2, the writer says that:  “Such expansion, which was to  take the English  language west  to  America  and  east  to  India,  was  supported  by  scientific  developments  such  as  the  discovery  of magnetism (and hence the invention  of the compass),  improvements in  cartography  and – perhaps the most important scientific revolution of them all – the new theories of astronomy and movement of the Earth in relation to the planets and stars”. The discovery of magnetism is one of many other inventions. And the most important scientific revolution of them all were the new theories of astronomy and movement of the earth in relation to the planet and stars developed by Copernicus.

=>ANSWER: FALSE

37. IN  17TH    CENTURY  BRITAIN,  LEADING  THINKERS  COMBINED  THEIR  INTEREST  IN  SCIENCE  WITH  AN  INTEREST  IN  HOW  TO EXPRESS IDEAS.

Keywords: 17th   century, interest, science, how to express ideas

In  paragraph  8,  the  writer  states  that:   “Fortunately,  several  members  of  the  Royal  Society  possessed  an interest  in  language  and  became  engaged  in  various  linguistic  projects.”  Then  the  writer  gives  some examples of leading thinkers who were interested in science and could express their ideas in writing style:

“Although a proposal in 1664   to establish a committee for improving the English language came to little, the society‟s members did a great deal to foster the publication of science in English and to encourage the  development  of  a  suitable  writing  style.  Many  members  of  the  Royal  Society  also  published monographs in English. One of the first was by Robert Hooke, the society‟s first curator of experiments, who described his experiments with microscopes in Micrographia (1665). This work is largely narrative in style, based on a transcript of oral demonstrations and lectures.”

+ leading thinkers = members of the Royal Society

+ interest in how to express ideas = interest in language, in various linguistic projects

+ express ideas = described his experiments

=>ANSWER: TRUE

QUESTIONS 38-40: COMPLETE THE TABLE.  CHOOSE NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS FROM THE PASSAGE.

Keywords: type of science, English

Paragraph  5  indicates  that:  “There  were  several  reasons  why  original  science  continued  to  be  written  in Latin.  The  first  was  simply  a  matter  of  audience.  Latin  was  suitable  for  an  international  audience  of scholars, whereas English reached a socially wider, but more local audience.  Hence, popular science was written in English.”

39. PRINCIPIA/MATHEMATICAL TREATISE

Keywords: example, Latin

Paragraph 5 states that:   “Original science was not done in English until the second half of the 17th century. For example, Newton  published  his  mathematical  treatise,  known  as  the  Principia,  in  Latin,  but published his later work on the properties of light – Opticks – in English”.

40. MORE LOCAL/LOCAL AUDIENCE

Keywords: target audience, but socially wider

Paragraph 5 states that:   “There were several reasons why original science continued to be written in Latin. The  first  was  simply  a  matter  of  audience.  Latin  was  suitable  for  an  international  audience  of  scholars, Whereas English reached a socially wider, but more local audience.”

1. candlewax
2. synthetic
3. chemistry
4. Novalak
5. fillers
6. hexa
7. raw
8. pressure
9. B
10. C
11. TRUE
12. FALSE
13. FALSE
14. FALSE
15. NOT GIVEN
16. TRUE
17. FALSE
18. TRUE
19. NOT GIVEN
20. TRUE
21. problem solving
22. temporal lobes
23. evaluating information
24. C
25. A
26. F
27. D
28. Latin
29. doctors
30. technical vocabulary
31. gramatical resources
32. Royal Society
33. German
34. industrial revolution
35. NOT GIVEN
36. FALSE
37. TRUE
38. popular
39. Principia
40. local (audience)

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 5 READING TEST 1 ANSWERS

Contents

Passage 1: Johnson’s Dictionary
Questions 1-3
Questions 4-7
Questions 8-13
CAMBRIDGE IELTS 5 – TEST 1 – PASSAGE 1 KEYWORDS TABLE
Passage 2: Nature or Nurture?
Questions 14-19:
Questions 20-22
Questions  23-26
CAMBRIDGE IELTS 5 – TEST 1 – PASSAGE 2 KEYWORDS TABLE
Passage 3: THE TRUTH ABOUT THE ENVIRONMENT
Questions 27-32
Questions 33-37
Questions 38-40

Cambridge IELTS 5 is the latest IELTS exam preparation. https://draftsbook.com/ will help you to answer all questions in cambridge ielts 5 reading test 1 with detail explanations.

PASSAGE 1: JOHNSON’S DICTIONARY

QUESTIONS 1-3

Key: D E G

Explanation:

A . IT AVOIDED ALL “SCHOLARLY” WORDS

Keywords : avoided, scholarly words

In paragraph 2, „scholarly words‟ are mentioned in relation to Cawdray‟s dictionary of 1604.

In paragraph 6, we are told that Johnson „had to draw on the best of all previous dictionaries. These obviously included Cawdray’s dictionary, which “tended to concentrate on scholarly words”, so it is unlikely that Johnson‟s dictionary would not contain any scholarly words.

=> ANSWER:  FALSE

B. IT WAS THE ONLY ENGLISH DICTIONARY IN GENERAL USE FOR 200 YEARS

Keywords: only, in general use, 200 years

At the end of paragraph 6, the writer says that “After its publication, the Dictionary was not seriously rivalled for over a century”.  This means that Johnson‟s dictionary was the only one that most people used for over 100 years [not 200 years].  We do not know if it was the only dictionary that most people used for 200 years.

=> ANSWER:  NOT GIVEN

C. IT WAS FAMOUS BECAUSE BECAUSE OF THE LARGE NUMBER OF PEOPLE INVOLVED

Keywords: famous, large number , people involved

In the last sentence of paragraph 5, the writer says: “He was also helped by six assistants, two of whom died whilst the Dictionary was still in preparation”.  Six is not “a large number” The reasons why the Dictionary was famous are referred to in paragraph 8:  it was “the cornerstone of Standard English”.

=> ANSWER:   FALSE

D. IT FOCUSED MAINLY ON LANGUAGE FROM CONTEMPORARY TEXTS

Key words : mainly, language, contemporary texts

In paragraph 6 , the writer states:  “The work was immense…, Johnson wrote the definition of over 40,000 words, and illustrated their many meanings with some 14,000 quotations drawn from English writing on every subject, from the Elizabethans to his own time.‟ contemporary = belonging to the same period of time/ current = to his own time

=> ANSWER:    TRUE

E. THERE WAS A TIME LIMIT FOR ITS COMPLETION

Keywords:  time limit, completion

In paragraph 6, the writer says that Johnson was ” Working to a deadline…..”

– time limit=deadline

=> ANSWER:   TRUE

F. IT IGNORED WORK DONE BY PREVIOUS DICTIONARIES WRITERS

Keywords: ignored, work, previous writers

In paragraph 6, the writer explains :  “he had to draw on the best of all previous dictionaries, and to make his work one of heroic synthesis”,  and ” He adopted his definitions on the principle of English common law – according to precedent” Precedent: something that may serve as an example or justification for subsequent situations.

=> ANSWER:      FALSE

G. IT TOOK INTO ACCOUNT SUBTLETIES OF MEANING

In paragraph 6, the writer says: ” Johnson treated English very practically, as a living language, with many different shades of meaning.” So it can be inferred that Johnson must have taken into account subtleties of meaning  in order to deal with many different shades, or small differences, of meaning. Subtlety (subtleties) : a fine distinction or the ability to make such a distinction

=> ANSWER:   TRUE

H. ITS DEFINITIONS WERE FAMOUS FOR THEIR ORIGINALITY

In paragraph 6, the writer states: “He did not expect to achieve complete originality”

=> ANSWER:     FALSE

QUESTIONS 4-7

4. HAVING RENTED THE GARRET, HE TOOK ON A NUMBER OF …, WHO STOOD AT A LONG CENTRAL DESK.

Keywords: garret, a number of, stood, long central desk

In paragraph 5, the first sentence, the writer says: “James Boswell, his biographer, describes the garret where Johnson worked as fitted up like a counting house” with a long desk running down the middle at which the copy clerks would work standing up.”

–     central=running down the middle

–     stood=standing up

=> ANSWER:        clerks/copy clerks

5. JOHNSON DID NOT HAVE A … AVAILABLE TO HIM, BUT EVENTUALLY PRODUCED DEFINITIONS OF IN EXCESS OF 40,000 WORDS….

Keywords:  definitions, 40,000 words

In paragraph 6,  the writer states that:  (….and without a library to hand), Johnson wrote the definitions of over 40,000 words….

–    in excess of=over

=> ANSWER:      library

6. ACCORDING TO HIS BIOGRAPHER, JAMES BOSWELL, JOHNSON‟S PRINCIPAL ACHIEVEMENT WAS TO BRING… TO THE ENGLISH LANGUAGE.

Keywords: James Boswell, principal achievement, English language

In paragraph 8, the writer says: ” It is the cornerstone of Standard English, an achievement which, in James Boswell‟s words, “conferred stability on the language of his country”

=> ANSWER:     stability

7. AS A REWARD FOR HIS HARD WORK, HE WAS GRANTED A … BY THE KING.

Keywords : reward, his hard work, the king

In the last paragraph, the writer says: ” The Dictionary, together with his other writing, made Johnson famous and so well esteemed that his friends were able to prevail upon King George III to offer him a pension”.

–     prevail upon= have influence in= persuade

=> ANSWER:        pension

QUESTIONS 8-13

8. THE GROWING IMPORTANCE OF THE MIDDLE CLASSES LED TO AN INCREASED DEMAND FOR DICTIONARIES.

Keywords: growing  importance, middle classes, increased demand

In paragraph 3, the first sentence, the writer explains :  “… the rise of dictionaries is associated with the rise of the English middle class….

Associated with =closely related toð

Rise= growing=increasedð

=> ANSWER:           TRUE

9. JOHNSON HAS BECOME MORE WELL KNOWN SINCE HIS DEATH.

Keywords: more ,well known, his death

In the last paragraph, the writer says: ” The Dictionary…made Johnson famous and so well esteemed that his friends were able to prevail upon King George III to offer him a pension. From then on, he was to become the Johnson of folklore.” The last paragraph tells us that Johnson became very famous after he finished the Dictionary and even the King gave Johnson money for the rest of his life [=a pension].  As a result of his fame during his lifetime, Johnson remained famous after his death and people continued to talk about his work [„the Johnson of folklore‟].

–     well known=famous

=> ANSWER:     FALSE

10. JOHNSON HAD BEEN PLANNING TO WRITE A DICTIONARY FOR SEVERAL YEARS.

Keywords: Johnson, planning, a dictionary, several years

In paragraph 4, we are simply told that:  “Johnson decided that he did not need an academy to settle arguments about language; he would write a dictionary himself….”  There is no mention of how many years Johnson had been planning this task.

=> ANSWER:       NOT GIVEN

11. JOHNSON SET UP AN ACADEMY TO HELP WITH THE WRITING OF HIS DICTIONARY.

Keywords: academy, help with the writing,, its completion

In paragraph 4, the writer states : ” Johnson decided he did not need an academy to settle arguments about language: he would write a dictionary himself; and he would do it single-handed.”

=> ANSWER:        FALSE

12. JOHNSON ONLY RECEIVED PAYMENT FOR HIS DICTIONARY ON ITS COMPLETION.

Keywords:  payment, completion

Paragraph 4 continues:  ” He was to be paid $1575 in instalments,  and from this he took money to rent 17 Gough Square, in which he set up his dictionary workshop”.   So, Johnson received regular payments in order for him to continue working on the dictionary. Instalment: a partial portion of money to be paid over designated period of time, ex: a month, a year.

=> ANSWER:      FALSE

13. NOT ALL OF THE ASSISTANTS SURVIVED TO SEE THE PUBLICATION OF THE DICTIONARY.

Key words : Not all, assistants, survived, publication

In the last sentence of paragraph 5, the writer says: ” He was also helped by six assistants, two of whom died whilst the Dictionary was still in preparation”.

=> ANSWER:        TRUE

PASSAGE 2: NATURE OR NURTURE?

QUESTIONS 14-19:

Which paragraph contains the following information:

14. A BIOLOGICAL EXPLANATION OF THE TEACHER-SUBJECTS‟ BEHAVIOUR

Keywords:  biological, teacher-subjects

In paragraph F, the first sentence, the writer states: ” One‟s first inclination might be to argue that there must be some sort of built-in animal aggression instinct that was activated by the experiment, and that Milgram‟s teacher-subjects were just following a genetic need …..”

–     might be to argue = to explain

–     animal instinct, genetic need = biological factors

=> ANSWER:        F

15. THE EXPLANATION MILGRAM GAVE THE TEACHER-SUBJECTS FOR THE EXPERIMENT

Keywords: explanation, teacher-subjects, experiment

In paragraph A, the writer says: ” Specifically, Milgram told each volunteer „teacher-subject‟ that the experiment was in the noble cause of education, and was designed to test whether or not punishing pupils for their mistakes would have a positive effect on the pupils‟ ability to learn.” So, Milgram told the volunteer „teacher-subjects‟ what the experiment was designed to test = he explained the purpose of the experiment.

=> ANSWER:        A

16. THE IDENTITY OF THE PUPILS

Keywords: identity, pupils

In paragraph B, line 6, the writer says : ”  The supposed  pupil was in reality an actor hired by Milgram to simulate receiving the shocks….”

identity=information about who the pupils were [actors]ð

=> ANSWER:          B

17. THE EXPECTED STATISTICAL OUTCOME

Keywords: expected, outcome

In paragraph D, the writer says : ” Prior to carrying out the experiment, Milgram explained his idea to a group of 39 psychiatrists and asked them to predict the average percentage of people who would be willing to administer the highest shock level…. The overwhelming consensus was that virtually all the teacher-subjects would refuse to obey the experimenter”

–   expected=predicted

Thus, the predicted/expected result or outcome was that almost all the teacher-subjects would refuse to obey.

=> ANSWER:           D

18. THE GENERAL AIM OF SOCIOBIOLOGICAL STUDY

Keywords : general aim, sociobiological

In paragraph I, the writer explains: ” This, in essence, is the problem of modern sociobiology – to discover the degree to which…genetic programming dictates…the interaction of animals and humans with their environment, that is, their behaviour.”

–     in essence = essentially

–     aim=problem

Sociobiology, therefore, aims to find the answer to this question.

=> ANSWER:           I

19. THE WAY MILGRAM PERSUADED THE TEACHER-SUBJECTS TO CONTINUE

Keywords : way, persuaded, continue

In paragraph C, line 7, the writer says : ” If the subject was reluctant to proceed, Milgram said that it was important for the sake of experiment that the procedure be followed through to the end.”

–     to proceed= to continue

=> ANSWER:           C

QUESTIONS 20-22

20. THE TEACHER-SUBJECTS WERE TOLD THAT THEY WERE TESTING WHETHER…

Keywords: teacher-subjects, told  testing

In paragraph A, the last sentence, the writer says: “Specifically, Milgram told each volunteer ” teacher-subject”  that the experiment was in the noble cause of education, and was designed to test whether or not punishing pupils for their mistakes would have a positive effect on the pupils‟ ability to learn”.

– help =have a positive effect on

=> ANSWER:          B. punishment helps learning

21. THE TEACHER-SUBJECTS WERE INSTRUCTED TO…

Keywords : teacher-subjects, instructed

In paragraph B, the writer refers to the instructions given to the teacher-subjects in the experiment:

“The teacher-subject was told that whenever the pupil gave the wrong answer to a question, a shock was to be administered, beginning at the lowest level and increasing in severity with each successive wrong answer.” ” Milgram told the teacher subjects to ignore the reaction,… and to administer whatever level of shock was called for, as per the rule governing the experimental situation of the moment.”

–     instructed=told

–     give=administer

=> ANSWER:          D.  give punishment according to a rule

22. BEFORE THE EXPERIMENT TOOK PLACE THE PSYCHIATRISTS…

Keywords: before,  psychiatrists

In paragraph D,the writer says: “Prior to carrying out the experiment, Milgram explained his idea to a group of 39 psychiatrists…” and  ” the  overwhelming consensus was that virtually all the teacher- subjects would refuse to obey the experimenter”, and that” most subjects would not go beyond 150 volts ,  and only “about one in 1000 would give the highest shock of 450 volts”

In paragraph E, the actual result is: ” over 60 percent  of the teacher-subjects continued to obey Milgram up to the 450 volts limit”.

So, the estimate of the psychiatrists was too low – they underestimated how many teacher-subjects would continue to follow the rules/the procedure.

–   before=prior to

–   comply with=obey

=> ANSWER:      C.  underestimated the teacher-subjects‟ willingness to comply with experimental procedure.

QUESTIONS  23-26

23. SEVERAL OF THE SUBJECTS WERE PSYCHOLOGY STUDENTS AT YALE UNIVERSITY.

Keywords: subjects, psychology students, Yale University

In paragraph A, the first sentence, the writer says: “A few years ago,…, Stanley Milgram from Yale University tested 40 subjects from all walks of life for …to perform.” From all walks of life : from different types of  jobs and different levels of society.  We are not told if any of these were students or -if they were – from what university.

=> ANSWER:         NOT GIVEN

24. SOME PEOPLE MAY BELIEVE THAT THE TEACHER-SUBJECTS‟ BEHAVIOUR COULD BE EXPLAINED AS A POSITIVE SURVIVAL MECHANISM.

Keywords: behaviour,  positive survival mechanism

In paragraph F, the writer explains that:  “A modern hard-core sociobiologist might even go so far as to claim that this aggressive instinct evolved as an advantageous trait, having been of survival value to our ancestors in their struggle against the hardship of life…” This means the teacher-subjects‟ behaviour evolved as an advantage in helping our ancestors survive. So it is a “positive survival mechanism”

–    advantageous trait = positive or useful characteristic that can produce a particular behaviour

–   mechanism =a way of doing something planned

=> ANSWER:         TRUE

25. IN SOCIOLOGICAL EXPLANATION, PERSONAL VALUES ARE MORE POWERFUL THAN AUTHORITY

Keywords: sociological, personal values,  authority

In paragraph H, the writer states: ” Thus, in this explanation,the subject merges his unique personality and personal and moral code with that of larger institutional structures, surrendering individual properties like loyalty, self-sarcrifice and discipline to the service of malevolent systems of authortity” This means that systems of authority are more powerful that individual personal and moral values.

–     surrender (to sth) = admit defeat/ stop trying to control something, because you are weaker/less powerful

personal values= individual properties/personal and moral code

=> ANSWER:           FALSE

26. MILGRAM‟S EXPERIMENT SOLVES AN IMPORTANT QUESTION IN SOCIOBIOLOGY.

Keywords: solves, important, sociobiology

In the last paragraph , the writer indicates that  : ” Here we have two radically different explanations for why so many teacher-subjects were willing to forgo their sense of responsibility for the sake of an institutional authority figure”, and  ” Put another  way, sociobiology is concerned with elucidating the biological basis of all behaviour.”  This means that the important question in sociobiology is making clear the biological basis of all behaviour. Milgram’s experiment did not solve it, it just brought out two different explanations for the results he obtained.

=> ANSWER:           FALSE

PASSAGE 3: THE TRUTH ABOUT THE ENVIRONMENT

QUESTIONS 27-32

27. ENVIRONMENTALISTS TAKE A PESSIMISTIC VIEW OF THE WORLD FOR A NUMBER OF REASONS.

Keywords: environmentalists, pessimistic, world

In the first paragraph , the writer says: ” For many environmentalists, the world seems to be getting worse. They have developed a hit-list of our main fears: ….”

– pessimistic view =seems to be getting worse

– a hit-list = a list of reasons why we should be worried

=> ANSWER:           YES

28. DATA ON THE EARTH‟S NATURAL RESOURCES HAS ONLY BEEN COLLECTED SINCE 1972.

Keywords: data, natural resources, only, since 1972

Information about  data on the Earth‟s natural resources is only found in  paragraph 2, where the writer states: ” First, energy and other natural resources have become more abundant, not less so, since the book  “The Limits to Growth” was published  in 1972 by a group of scientists.” No year is mentioned about when information about the Earth‟s natural resources started to be collected.  1972 is simply the date when a book about natural resources was published.

=> ANSWER:              NOT GIVEN

29. THE NUMBER OF STARVING PEOPLE IN THE WORLD HAS INCREASED IN RECENT YEARS.

Keywords: starving people, increased, recent years

In paragraph 2, line 4, the writer says : ” Fewer people are starving”

=> ANSWER:             NO

30. EXTINCT SPECIES ARE BEING REPLACED BY NEW SPECIES.

Keywords:  Extinct species, being replaced

“Species” are only mentioned in paragraph 2. In line 5, the writer says : ” Third, although species are indeed becoming extinct, only about 0.7% of them are expected to disappear in the next 50 years, not 20-25%, as has so often been predicted.” Their replacement by new species is not mentioned.

=> ANSWER:             NOT GIVEN

31. SOME POLLUTION PROBLEMS HAVE BEEN CORRECTLY LINKED TO INDUSTRIALISATION.

Keywords: pollution problems, correctly linked, industrialisation

In paragraph 2, line 7, the writer says: “And finally, most forms of environmental pollution either appear to have been exaggerated, or are transient – associated with the early phases of industrialisation and therefore best cured not by restricting economic growth, but by accelerating it.” So, in the early period of industrialisation, some pollution problems were linked with this new development at the time.

–     associated with = linked to

=> ANSWER:             YES

32. IT WOULD BE BEST TO ATTEMPT TO SLOW DOWN ECONOMIC GROWTH.

Keywords: best, slow down, economic growth

In the same sentence in paragraph 2, the writer argues that most forms of environmental pollution are: “….therefore best cured not by restricting economic growth, but accelerating it.” So, it is best to attempt to have more rapid economic growth, by accelerating it.

=> ANSWER:             NO

QUESTIONS 33-37

33. WHAT ASPECT OF SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH DOES THE WRITER EXPRESS CONCERN ABOUT IN PARAGRAPH 4?

Keywords: scientific research, concern  about

In paragraph 4, the writer says ” One is the lopsidedness built into scientific research”.  In the next sentence, the writer also states that ” Scientific funding goes mainly to areas with many problems. That may be wise policy, but it will also create an impression that many more potential problems exist than is the case” So, the problem referred to is that research is „lopsided‟ – funding goes to some areas of research, but not to other areas.

=> ANSWER:             C

34. THE WRITER QUOTES FROM THE WORLDWIDE FUND FOR NATURE TO ILLUSTRATE HOW…

Keywords: quotes, Worldwide Fund for Nature

In paragraph 5, the writer says: “Understandably, perhaps, they sometimes overstate their arguments.  A press release by the Worldwide Fund for Nature in 1997 is given as an example to show/illustrate this.

–     exaggerate their claims=overstate their arguments

=> ANSWER:    D

35. WHAT IS THE WRITER‟S MAIN POINT ABOUT LOBBY GROUPS IN PARAGRAPH 6?

Keywords: lobby groups

In paragraph 6, the writer argues that: “That would matter less if people applied the same degree of scepticism to environmental lobbying as they do to lobby groups in other fields” The example of trade lobby groups which then follows is used to show that people tend to believe the claims of environmental lobby groups more than the claims of other lobby groups.  As a result, those other lobby groups are criticised more, because people do not believe what they say.

=> ANSWER:              C

36. THE WRITER SUGGESTS THAT NEWSPAPERS PRINT ITEMS THAT ARE INTENDED TO

Keywords : newspapers, intended to

In paragraph 7, the writer states: “People are clearly more curious about bad news than good. Newspapers and broadcasters are there to provide what the public wants.”  Thus, newspapers print items about the environment that usually contain bad news, because that is what people want to read.

–     meet their reader‟s expectations = provide what the public wants

=> ANSWER:              B

37. WHAT DOES THE WRITER SAY ABOUT AMERICA‟S WASTE PROBLEM?

Keywords: America‟s waste problem

In paragraph 8, the writer says: ” Yet, even if America‟s trash  output continues to rise as it has done in the past, and if the American population doubles by 2100, all the rubbish America produces through the entire 21   century will still take up only one-12000   of the area of the entire United States.” This is an example to prove that the worry of insufficient places for waste disposal is not as important as some people believe.

– waste= trash = rubbish

=> ANSWER:             B

QUESTIONS 38-40

38-39  THE WRITER ADMITS THAT GLOBAL WARMING IS  A … CHALLENGE, BUT SAYS THAT IT WILL NOT HAVE A CATASTROPHIC IMPACT ON OUR FUTURE, IF WE DEAL WITH IT IN THE …WAY.

Keywords:  global warming, impact, deal with it

In paragraph 2, the last sentence, the writer says : ” One  form of pollution – the release of greenhouse gases that cause global warming – does appears to be a phenomenon that is going to extend well into our future, but its total impact is unlikely to pose a devastating problem. A bigger problem may well turn out to be an inappropriate response to it.” The writer indicates that the problem is an inappropriate response to global warming, which means that we need to deal it in the right way.

– long-term = lasting/extending over  a long time = extend well into our future

–  catastrophic=devastating

–  inappropriate =unsuitable, wrong

=> ANSWER:             38. E  39. D

40. HE FEELS IT WOULD BE BETTER TO SPEND MONEY ON THE MORE … HEALTH PROBLEM OF PROVIDING THE WORLD’S POPULATION WITH CLEAN DRINKING WATER.

Keywords:  better, health problem, clean drinking water

In paragraph 11, the writer argues : ” Yet the cost of reducing carbon dioxide emissions…will be higher than the cost of solving the world‟s single, most pressing health problem: providing universal access to clean drinking water and sanitation.”

pressing  = demanding immediate attention= urgent

=> ANSWER:               I.

1. D
2. E
3. G
4. clerks/copying clerks
5. library
6. stability
7. pension
8. TRUE
9. FALSE
10. NOT GIVEN
11. FALSE
12. FALSE
13. TRUE
14. F
15. A
16. B
17. D
18. I
19. C
20. B
21. D
22. C
23. NOT GIVEN
24. TRUE
25. FALSE
26. FALSE
27. YES
28. NOT GIVEN
29. NO
30. NOT GIVEN
31. YES
32. NO
33. C
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. B
38. E
39. D
40. I

CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

Cambridge 4 Reading Test 1-2-3-4 Answers

Reading Test 1 Answers

Following are the Cambridge IELTS 4 Reading Test 1 answers for ‘Tropical Rainforests‘, ‘What do whales feel?‘ and ‘Visual symbols and the blind‘ passages:

1. FALSE
2. FALSE
3. TRUE
4. TRUE
5. FALSE
6. NOT GIVEN
7. TRUE
8. NOT GIVEN
9. M
10. E
11. G
12. P
13. J
14. B
15. taste buds
16. baleen/the baleen whales
17. forward, downward
18. freshwater dolphin(s)
19. water/the water
20. lower frequencies/the lower frequencies
21. bowhead, humpback
22. touch/sense of touch
23. freshwater dolphin(s)
24. airborne flying fish
25. clear water(s)/clear open water
26. acoustic sense/the acoustic sense
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. E
31. C
32. A
33. pairs
34. shapes
35. sighted
36. sighted
37. deep
38. blind
39. similar
40. B

Reading Test 2 Answers

Following are the Cambridge 4 Reading Test 2 answers for ‘Lost for words‘, ‘Alternative medicine in Australia‘ and ‘Play is a serious business‘ passages:

1. isolation
2. economic globalisation/globalization
3. cultural identity
4. traditional skill
5. E
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. B
10. NO
11. YES
12. NOT GIVEN
13. YES
14. C
15. B
16. YES
17. NO
18. YES
19. YES
20. YES
21. NOT GIVEN
22. NO
23. YES
24. emotional/emotional problems
25. headache(s)
26. general ill health
27. H
28. F
29. A
30. H
31. I
32. B
33. A
34. C
35. F
36. B
37. G
38. E
39. D
40. A

Reading Test 3 Answers

Following are the Cambridge IELTS 4 Reading Test 3 answers for ‘Micro Enterprise Credit for street youth‘, ‘Obtaining linguistic data‘ and ‘Volcanoes – earth-shattering news‘ passages:

1. A
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. Sudan, India
6. bicycles
7. Shoe Shine/Shoe Shine Collective
8. life skills
9. NO
10. NOT GIVEN
11. NO
12. YES
13. A
14. iii
15. i
16. iv
17. vi
18. plates/the plates/the tectonic plates
19. magna
20. ring of fire
21. 600/600 years
22. water/the water/oceans
23. lava/magna/molten rock
24. India/Western India
25. explodes
26. gases/the gases/trapped gases
27. D
28. E
29. C
30. D
31. F
32. linguist(s)
33. foreign languages
34. quality/the poor
35. non-verbal behaviour/facial expressions
36. camera/video camera/recording
37. frequency of usage/usage frequency
38. particular linguistic feature
39. size
40. intuitions

Reading Test 4 Answers

Following are the Cambridge IELTS 4 Reading Test 4 answers for ‘How much higher? How much faster?‘, ‘The nature and aims of Archaeology‘ and ‘The problem of scarce resources‘ passages:

1. TRUE
2. NOT GIVEN
3. FALSE
4. FALSE
5. NOT GIVEN
6. TRUE
7. genetics
8. power
9. injuries
10. training
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. YES
15. NOT GIVEN
16. NO
17. YES
18. NOT GIVEN
19. NO
20. D
21. E
22. C
23. D
24. oral histories
25. humanistic study
26. historical discipline
27. scientist
28. iv
29. i
30. iii
31. v
32. B
33. B
34. A
35. B
36. NO
37. YES
38. YES
39. NOT GIVEN
40. NOT GIVEN
CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

Cambridge 3 Reading Test 1-2-3-4 Answers

Reading Test 1 Answers

Following are the Cambridge IELTS 3 Reading Test 1 answers for for ‘The Rocket – From East to West‘, ‘The risks of cigarette smoke‘ and ‘The scientific method‘ passages:

1. iv
2. i
3. v
4. vii
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. E
11. B
12. E
13. F
14. G
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. NO
19. NOT GIVEN
20. YES
21. NOT GIVEN
22. E
23. G
24. H
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. iv
30. vii
31. iii
32. v
33. vi
34. B
35. F
36. YES
37. NO
38. NOT GIVEN
39. YES
40. D

Reading Test 2 Answers

Following are the Cambridge 3 Reading Test 2 answers for ‘A remarkable Beetle‘, ‘Environmental Management‘ and ‘The concept of Role Theory‘ passages:

1. NOT GIVEN
2. NO
3. YES
4. YES
5. NO
6. South African
7. French
8. Spanish
9. temperate
10. early spring
11. two to five
12. sub-tropical
13. tunneling/tunnelling
14. v
15. vii
16. ii
17. iv
18. i
19. G
20. C
21. F
22. B
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. C
27. A
28. A
29. NOT GIVEN
30. YES
31. YES
32. NOT GIVEN
33. YES
34. NO
35. NO
36. role sign
37. ritual
38. role sign
39. role set
40. C

Reading Test 3 Answers

Following are the Cambridge IELTS 3 Reading Test 3 answers for ‘The department of Ethnography‘, ‘Secrets of the forest‘ and ‘Highs & Lows‘ passages:

1. FALSE
2. FALSE
3. FALSE
4. NOT GIVEN
5. TRUE
6. TRUE
7. Technical Series
8. Artefact Types
9. Field Assemblages
10. Artefact Types
11. Field Assemblages
12. Social Experience
13. v
14. i
15. vi
16. NO
17. YES
18. NOT GIVEN
19. NO
20. YES
21. YES
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. C
26. A
27. B
28. B
29. NOT GIVEN
30. FALSE
31. FALSE
32. TRUE
33. TRUE
34. NOT GIVEN
35. D
36. E
37. B
38. B
39. A
40. F

Reading Test 4 Answers

Following are the Cambridge IELTS 3 Reading Test 4 answersfor ‘Air pollution‘, ‘Votes for women‘ and ‘Measuring organizational performance‘ passages:

1. Los Angeles
2. London
3. Singapore
4. London
5. Los Angeles
6. YES
7. YES
8. NO
9. NO
10. NO
11. A
12. D
13. C
14. C
15. D
16. 1918, 1928
17. advertising (space)
18. colour scheme/colours
19. Woman’s Exhibition
20. NO
21. YES
22. NO
23. NO
24. NOT GIVEN
25. YES
26. YES
27. D
28. A
29. C
30. C
31. supervision
32. productivity
33. reduced/cut/decreased
34. leadership
35. overstaffed
36. reduced/cut/decreased
37. C
38. D
39. G
40. F
CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

Cambridge 2 Reading Test 1-2-3-4 Answers

Reading Test 1 Answers

Following are the Cambridge IELTS 2 Reading Test 1 answers for ‘Airports on water‘, ‘Changing our understanding of health‘ and ‘Children’s thinking‘ passages:

1. A
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. runways and taxiways
7. terminal building site
8. sand
9. stiff clay
10. Lantau Island
11. Sea walls
12. rainfall
13. geotextile
14. viii
15. ii
16. iv
17. ix
18. vii
19. 1946
20. (the) wealthy (members)
21. social, economic, environmental
22. 1970s
23. NOT GIVEN
24. YES
25. NO
26. NO
27. NOT GIVEN
28. CH
29. MC
30. MC
31. SH
32. SH
33. MC
34. HTK
35. SH
36. NOT GIVEN
37. YES
38. YES
39. YES
40. NO

Reading Test 2 Answers

Following are the Cambridge 2 Reading Test 2 answers for ‘Implementing the cycle of success: A case study‘, ‘Language‘ and ‘What is a Port city?‘ passages:

1. C
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. benchmarking
7. service delivery
8. (performance) measures
9. productivity
10. take charge
11. feedback
12. employee/staff
13. 30 days
14. major consequences
15. surveys
16. sales literature
17. Eastern Europe/Far East/Russia
18. C
19. B
20. C
21. training
22. translation services
23. language courses
24. glossaries
25. D
26. A
27. ii
28. i
29. v
30. vi
31. D
32. C
33. F
34. G
35. NO
36. YES
37. NO
38. YES
39. NOT GIVEN
40. YES

Reading Test 3 Answers

Following are the Cambridge IELTS 2 Reading Test 3 answers for ‘Absenteeism in Nursing: A longitudinal study‘, ‘The Motor Car‘ and ‘The Keyless Society‘ passages:

1. NO
2. NO
3. NO
4. YES
5. NOT GIVEN
6. NO
7. YES
8. (local) businesses
9. (work) schedule
10. excessive
11. voluntary absence/absenteeism
12. twenty
13. communication
14. C
15. F
16. E
17. H
18. A
19. D
20. NOT GIVEN
21. NO
22. NOT GIVEN
23. YES
24. YES
25. YES
26. NO
27. iv
28. vii
29. viii
30. iii
31. ii
32. i
33. x
34. B
35. B
36. E
37. A
38. B
39. D
40. E

Reading Test 4 Answers

Following are the Cambridge IELTS 2 Reading Test 4 answersfor ‘Green wave washes over mainstream shopping‘, ‘Great concern in Europe‘ and ‘In search of the holy grail‘ passages:

1. YES
2. NO
3. YES
4. NOT GIVEN
5. NO
6. NOT GIVEN
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. honesty and openness
11. consumers
12. armchair ethicals
13. social record
14. D
15. B
16. D
17. C
18. NO
19. YES
20. YES
21. NOT GIVEN
22. F
23. C
24. J
25. I
26. C
27. Apollo (space) programme
28. (early) next century
29. 7,000
30. disease
31. muscular dystrophy
32. cystic fibrosis
33. D
34. C
35. B
36. C
37. D
38. B
39. A
40. A
CAMBRIDGE IELTS 8 READING TEST 2 ANSWERS

Cambridge 1 Reading Test 1-2-3-4 Answers

Reading Test 1 Answers

1. preserve
2. unaware
3. chance
4. friction
5. rotating
6. percussion
7. Eskimos
8. despite
9. F
10. D
11. E
12. C
13. G
14. A
15. C
16. YES
17. YES
18. NOT GIVEN
19. NO
20. NO
21. NOT GIVEN
22. YES
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. A
27. D
28. E
29. timber and stone
30. Modernism
31. International style
32. badly designed buildings
33. preservation
34. High-Tech
35. co-existence of styles
36. G
37. F
38. H
39. C
40. D

Reading Test 2 Answers

1. B
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. E
8. 15-20%
9. 40%
10. 6%
11. D
12. B
13. prepare
14. full
15. smoke
16. charge
17. machines
18. combs
19. split
20. cells/comb
21. frames (of comb)
22. screen
23. brood chamber
24. NOT GIVEN
25. YES
26. YES
27. NO
28. iii
29. v
30. iv
31. vii
32. viii
33. NO
34. YES
35. NOT GIVEN
36. YES
37. NOT GIVEN
38. D
39. B
40. F

Reading Test 3 Answers

1. vi
2. ii
3. x
4. viii
5. iv
6. ix
7. existing
8. (related) phrases
9. meanings/forms
10. spoken/oral/real
11. noise/pauses
12. B
13. xi
14. ix
15. viii
16. v
17. i
18. vii
19. iii
20. iv
21. sell quickly
22. (South Limberg) planners
23. (road/noise) embankments
24. Olivetti employees
25. adapt to
26. his bakery business/a cool room
27. NO
28. NOT GIVEN
29. YES
30. NO
31. YES
32. NOT GIVEN
33. C
34. A
35. B
36. D
37. F
38. G
39.
40.

Reading Test 4 Answers

1. viii
2. i
3. ix
4. iii
5. vi
6. molten glass/ribbon of glass
7. belt of steel/steel belt
8. (lighbulb) moulds
9. A
10. B
11. A
12. C
13. A
14. E
15. G
16. A
17. C
18. F
19. D
20. A
21. S
22. M
23. S
24. doubled/doubling
25. de-layering
26. demographic trends
27. employers
28. YES
29. NO
30. NO
31. NOT GIVEN
32. vi
33. iii
34. i
35. ii
36. will/may not survive
37. locality
38. logging takes place/occurs
39. B
40.
Chapter 6:  Software Testing with example Process

Chapter 6: Software Testing with example Process

What is Testing?

Testing is the process of evaluating a system or its component(s) with the intent to find whether it satisfies the specified requirements or not. In simple words, testing is executing a system in order to identify any gaps, errors, or missing requirements in contrary to the actual requirements.

According to ANSI/IEEE 1059 standard, Testing can be defined as – A process of analyzing a software item to detect the differences between existing and required conditions (that is defects/errors/bugs) and to evaluate the features of the software item.

Who does Testing?

It depends on the process and the associated stakeholders of the project(s). In the IT industry, large companies have a team with responsibilities to evaluate the developed software in context of the given requirements. Moreover, developers also conduct testing which is called Unit Testing. In most cases, the following professionals are involved in testing a system within their respective capacities −

  • Software Tester
  • Software Developer
  • Project Lead/Manager
  • End User

Different companies have different designations for people who test the software on the basis of their experience and knowledge such as Software Tester, Software Quality Assurance Engineer, QA Analyst, etc.

It is not possible to test the software at any time during its cycle. The next two sections state when testing should be started and when to end it during the SDLC.

When to Start Testing?

An early start to testing reduces the cost and time to rework and produce error-free software that is delivered to the client. However in Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), testing can be started from the Requirements Gathering phase and continued till the deployment of the software.

It also depends on the development model that is being used. For example, in the Waterfall model, formal testing is conducted in the testing phase; but in the incremental model, testing is performed at the end of every increment/iteration and the whole application is tested at the end.

Testing is done in different forms at every phase of SDLC −

  • During the requirement gathering phase, the analysis and verification of requirements are also considered as testing.
  • Reviewing the design in the design phase with the intent to improve the design is also considered as testing.
  • Testing performed by a developer on completion of the code is also categorized as testing.

When to Stop Testing?

It is difficult to determine when to stop testing, as testing is a never-ending process and no one can claim that a software is 100% tested. The following aspects are to be considered for stopping the testing process −

  • Testing Deadlines
  • Completion of test case execution
  • Completion of functional and code coverage to a certain point
  • Bug rate falls below a certain level and no high-priority bugs are identified
  • Management decision

Verification & Validation

These two terms are very confusing for most people, who use them interchangeably. The following table highlights the differences between verification and validation.

Sr.No.VerificationValidation
1Verification addresses the concern: “Are you building it right?”Validation addresses the concern: “Are you building the right thing?”
2Ensures that the software system meets all the functionality.Ensures that the functionalities meet the intended behavior.
3Verification takes place first and includes the checking for documentation, code, etc.Validation occurs after verification and mainly involves the checking of the overall product.
4Done by developers.Done by testers.
5It has static activities, as it includes collecting reviews, walkthroughs, and inspections to verify a software.It has dynamic activities, as it includes executing the software against the requirements.
6It is an objective process and no subjective decision should be needed to verify a software.It is a subjective process and involves subjective decisions on how well a software works.

Software Testing – Myths

Given below are some of the most common myths about software testing.

Myth 1: Testing is Too Expensive

Reality − There is a saying, pay less for testing during software development or pay more for maintenance or correction later. Early testing saves both time and cost in many aspects, however reducing the cost without testing may result in improper design of a software application rendering the product useless.

Myth 2: Testing is Time-Consuming

Reality − During the SDLC phases, testing is never a time-consuming process. However diagnosing and fixing the errors identified during proper testing is a time-consuming but productive activity.

Myth 3: Only Fully Developed Products are Tested

Reality − No doubt, testing depends on the source code but reviewing requirements and developing test cases is independent from the developed code. However iterative or incremental approach as a development life cycle model may reduce the dependency of testing on the fully developed software.

Myth 4: Complete Testing is Possible

Reality − It becomes an issue when a client or tester thinks that complete testing is possible. It is possible that all paths have been tested by the team but occurrence of complete testing is never possible. There might be some scenarios that are never executed by the test team or the client during the software development life cycle and may be executed once the project has been deployed.

Myth 5: A Tested Software is Bug-Free

Reality − This is a very common myth that the clients, project managers, and the management team believes in. No one can claim with absolute certainty that a software application is 100% bug-free even if a tester with superb testing skills has tested the application.

Myth 6: Missed Defects are due to Testers

Reality − It is not a correct approach to blame testers for bugs that remain in the application even after testing has been performed. This myth relates to Time, Cost, and Requirements changing Constraints. However the test strategy may also result in bugs being missed by the testing team.

Myth 7: Testers are Responsible for Quality of Product

Reality − It is a very common misinterpretation that only testers or the testing team should be responsible for product quality. Testers‘ responsibilities include the identification of bugs to the stakeholders and then it is their decision whether they will fix the bug or release the software. Releasing the software at the time puts more pressure on the testers, as they will be blamed for any error.

Myth 8: Test Automation should be used wherever possible to Reduce Time

Reality − Yes, it is true that Test Automation reduces the testing time, but it is not possible to start test automation at any time during software development. Test automaton should be started when the software has been manually tested and is stable to some extent. Moreover, test automation can never be used if requirements keep changing.

Myth 9: Anyone can Test a Software Application

Reality − People outside the IT industry think and even believe that anyone can test a software and testing is not a creative job. However testers know very well that this is a myth. Thinking alternative scenarios, try to crash a software with the intent to explore potential bugs is not possible for the person who developed it.

Myth 10: A Tester’s only Task is to Find Bugs

Reality − Finding bugs in a software is the task of the testers, but at the same time, they are domain experts of the particular software. Developers are only responsible for the specific component or area that is assigned to them but testers understand the overall workings of the software, what the dependencies are, and the impacts of one module on another module.

Testing and Debugging

Testing − It involves identifying bug/error/defect in a software without correcting it. Normally professionals with a quality assurance background are involved in bugs identification. Testing is performed in the testing phase.

Debugging − It involves identifying, isolating, and fixing the problems/bugs. Developers who code the software conduct debugging upon encountering an error in the code. Debugging is a part of White Box Testing or Unit Testing. Debugging can be performed in the development phase while conducting Unit Testing or in phases while fixing the reported bugs.

Software Testing – QA, QC & Testing

Testing, Quality Assurance,and Quality Control

Most people get confused when it comes to pin down the differences among Quality Assurance, Quality Control, and Testing. Although they are interrelated and to some extent, they can be considered as same activities, but there exist distinguishing points that set them apart. The following table lists the points that differentiate QA, QC, and Testing.

Quality AssuranceQuality ControlTesting
QA includes activities that ensure the implementation of processes, procedures and standards in context to verification of developed software and intended requirements.It includes activities that ensure the verification of a developed software with respect to documented (or not in some cases) requirements.It includes activities that ensure the identification of bugs/error/defects in a software.
Focuses on processes and procedures rather than conducting actual testing on the system.Focuses on actual testing by executing the software with an aim to identify bug/defect through implementation of procedures and process.Focuses on actual testing.
Process-oriented activities.Product-oriented activities.Product-oriented activities.
Preventive activities.It is a corrective process.It is a preventive process.
It is a subset of Software Test Life Cycle (STLC).QC can be considered as the subset of Quality Assurance.Testing is the subset of Quality Control.

Software Testing – Types of Testing

This section describes the different types of testing that may be used to test a software during SDLC.

Manual Testing

Manual testing includes testing a software manually, i.e., without using any automated tool or any script. In this type, the tester takes over the role of an end-user and tests the software to identify any unexpected behavior or bug. There are different stages for manual testing such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and user acceptance testing.

Testers use test plans, test cases, or test scenarios to test a software to ensure the completeness of testing. Manual testing also includes exploratory testing, as testers explore the software to identify errors in it.

Automation Testing

Automation testing, which is also known as Test Automation, is when the tester writes scripts and uses another software to test the product. This process involves automation of a manual process. Automation Testing is used to re-run the test scenarios that were performed manually, quickly, and repeatedly.

Apart from regression testing, automation testing is also used to test the application from load, performance, and stress point of view. It increases the test coverage, improves accuracy, and saves time and money in comparison to manual testing.

What to Automate?

It is not possible to automate everything in a software. The areas at which a user can make transactions such as the login form or registration forms, any area where large number of users can access the software simultaneously should be automated.

Furthermore, all GUI items, connections with databases, field validations, etc. can be efficiently tested by automating the manual process.

When to Automate?

Test Automation should be used by considering the following aspects of a software −

  • Large and critical projects
  • Projects that require testing the same areas frequently
  • Requirements not changing frequently
  • Accessing the application for load and performance with many virtual users
  • Stable software with respect to manual testing
  • Availability of time

How to Automate?

Automation is done by using a supportive computer language like VB scripting and an automated software application. There are many tools available that can be used to write automation scripts. Before mentioning the tools, let us identify the process that can be used to automate the testing process −

  • Identifying areas within a software for automation
  • Selection of appropriate tool for test automation
  • Writing test scripts
  • Development of test suits
  • Execution of scripts
  • Create result reports
  • Identify any potential bug or performance issues

Software Testing Tools

The following tools can be used for automation testing −

  • HP Quick Test Professional
  • Selenium
  • IBM Rational Functional Tester
  • SilkTest
  • TestComplete
  • Testing Anywhere
  • WinRunner
  • LoadRunner
  • Visual Studio Test Professional
  • WATIR

Software Testing – Methods

There are different methods that can be used for software testing. This chapter briefly describes the methods available.

Black-Box Testing

The technique of testing without having any knowledge of the interior workings of the application is called black-box testing. The tester is oblivious to the system architecture and does not have access to the source code. Typically, while performing a black-box test, a tester will interact with the system’s user interface by providing inputs and examining outputs without knowing how and where the inputs are worked upon.

The following table lists the advantages and disadvantages of black-box testing.

AdvantagesDisadvantages
Well suited and efficient for large code segments.Limited coverage, since only a selected number of test scenarios is actually performed.
Code access is not required.Inefficient testing, due to the fact that the tester only has limited knowledge about an application.
Clearly separates user’s perspective from the developer’s perspective through visibly defined roles.Blind coverage, since the tester cannot target specific code segments or errorprone areas.
Large numbers of moderately skilled testers can test the application with no knowledge of implementation, programming language, or operating systems.The test cases are difficult to design.

White-Box Testing

White-box testing is the detailed investigation of internal logic and structure of the code. Whitebox testing is also called glass testing or open-box testing. In order to perform whitebox testing on an application, a tester needs to know the internal workings of the code.

The tester needs to have a look inside the source code and find out which unit/chunk of the code is behaving inappropriately.

The following table lists the advantages and disadvantages of white-box testing.

AdvantagesDisadvantages
As the tester has knowledge of the source code, it becomes very easy to find out which type of data can help in testing the application effectively.Due to the fact that a skilled tester is needed to perform white-box testing, the costs are increased.
It helps in optimizing the code.Sometimes it is impossible to look into every nook and corner to find out hidden errors that may create problems, as many paths will go untested.
Extra lines of code can be removed which can bring in hidden defects.It is difficult to maintain white-box testing, as it requires specialized tools like code analyzers and debugging tools.
Due to the tester’s knowledge about the code, maximum coverage is attained during test scenario writing. 

Grey-Box Testing

Grey-box testing is a technique to test the application with having a limited knowledge of the internal workings of an application. In software testing, the phrase the more you know, the better carries a lot of weight while testing an application.

Mastering the domain of a system always gives the tester an edge over someone with limited domain knowledge. Unlike black-box testing, where the tester only tests the application’s user interface; in grey-box testing, the tester has access to design documents and the database.

Having this knowledge, a tester can prepare better test data and test scenarios while making a test plan.

AdvantagesDisadvantages
Offers combined benefits of black-box and whitebox testing wherever possible.Since the access to source code is not available, the ability to go over the code and test coverage is limited.
Grey box testers don’t rely on the source code; instead they rely on interface definition and functional specifications.The tests can be redundant if the software designer has already run a test case.
Based on the limited information available, a grey-box tester can design excellent test scenarios especially around communication protocols and data type handling.Testing every possible input stream is unrealistic because it would take an unreasonable amount of time; therefore, many program paths will go untested.
The test is done from the point of view of the user and not the designer. 

A Comparison of Testing Methods

The following table lists the points that differentiate black-box testing, grey-box testing, and white-box testing.

Black-Box TestingGrey-Box TestingWhite-Box Testing
The internal workings of an application need not be known.The tester has limited knowledge of the internal workings of the application.Tester has full knowledge of the internal workings of the application.
Also known as closed-box testing, data-driven testing, or functional testing.Also known as translucent testing, as the tester has limited knowledge of the insides of the application.Also known as clear-box testing, structural testing, or code-based testing.
Performed by end-users and also by testers and developers.Performed by end-users and also by testers and developers.Normally done by testers and developers.
Testing is based on external expectations – Internal behaviorTesting is done on the basis of high-level database diagrams andInternal workings are fully known and the tester can
of the application is unknown.data flow diagrams.design test data accordingly.
It is exhaustive and the least time-consuming.Partly time-consuming and exhaustive.The most exhaustive and time-consuming type of testing.
Not suited for algorithm testing.Not suited for algorithm testing.Suited for algorithm testing.
This can only be done by trialand-error method.Data domains and internal boundaries can be tested, if known.Data domains and internal boundaries can be better tested.

Software Testing – Levels

There are different levels during the process of testing. In this chapter, a brief description is provided about these levels.

Levels of testing include different methodologies that can be used while conducting software testing. The main levels of software testing are −

  • Functional Testing
  • Non-functional Testing

Functional Testing

This is a type of black-box testing that is based on the specifications of the software that is to be tested. The application is tested by providing input and then the results are examined that need to conform to the functionality it was intended for. Functional testing of a software is conducted on a complete, integrated system to evaluate the system’s compliance with its specified requirements.

There are five steps that are involved while testing an application for functionality.

StepsDescription
IThe determination of the functionality that the intended application is meant to perform.
IIThe creation of test data based on the specifications of the application.
IIIThe output based on the test data and the specifications of the application.
IVThe writing of test scenarios and the execution of test cases.
VThe comparison of actual and expected results based on the executed test cases.

An effective testing practice will see the above steps applied to the testing policies of every organization and hence it will make sure that the organization maintains the strictest of standards when it comes to software quality.

Unit Testing

This type of testing is performed by developers before the setup is handed over to the testing team to formally execute the test cases. Unit testing is performed by the respective developers on the individual units of source code assigned areas. The developers use test data that is different from the test data of the quality assurance team.

The goal of unit testing is to isolate each part of the program and show that individual parts are correct in terms of requirements and functionality.

Limitations of Unit Testing

Testing cannot catch each and every bug in an application. It is impossible to evaluate every execution path in every software application. The same is the case with unit testing.

There is a limit to the number of scenarios and test data that a developer can use to verify a source code. After having exhausted all the options, there is no choice but to stop unit testing and merge the code segment with other units.

Integration Testing

Integration testing is defined as the testing of combined parts of an application to determine if they function correctly. Integration testing can be done in two ways: Bottom-up integration testing and Top-down integration testing.

Sr.No.Integration Testing Method
1Bottom-up integration This testing begins with unit testing, followed by tests of progressively higher-level combinations of units called modules or builds.
2Top-down integration In this testing, the highest-level modules are tested first and progressively, lower-level modules are tested thereafter.

In a comprehensive software development environment, bottom-up testing is usually done first, followed by top-down testing. The process concludes with multiple tests of the complete application, preferably in scenarios designed to mimic actual situations.

System Testing

System testing tests the system as a whole. Once all the components are integrated, the application as a whole is tested rigorously to see that it meets the specified Quality Standards. This type of testing is performed by a specialized testing team.

System testing is important because of the following reasons −

  • System testing is the first step in the Software Development Life Cycle, where the application is tested as a whole.
  • The application is tested thoroughly to verify that it meets the functional and technical specifications.
  • The application is tested in an environment that is very close to the production environment where the application will be deployed.
  • System testing enables us to test, verify, and validate both the business requirements as well as the application architecture.

Regression Testing

Whenever a change in a software application is made, it is quite possible that other areas within the application have been affected by this change. Regression testing is performed to verify that a fixed bug hasn’t resulted in another functionality or business rule violation. The intent of regression testing is to ensure that a change, such as a bug fix should not result in another fault being uncovered in the application.

Regression testing is important because of the following reasons −

  • Minimize the gaps in testing when an application with changes made has to be tested.  Testing the new changes to verify that the changes made did not affect any other area of the application.
  • Mitigates risks when regression testing is performed on the application.
  • Test coverage is increased without compromising timelines.
  • Increase speed to market the product.

Acceptance Testing

This is arguably the most important type of testing, as it is conducted by the Quality Assurance Team who will gauge whether the application meets the intended specifications and satisfies the client‘s requirement. The QA team will have a set of pre-written scenarios and test cases that will be used to test the application.

More ideas will be shared about the application and more tests can be performed on it to gauge its accuracy and the reasons why the project was initiated. Acceptance tests are not only intended to point out simple spelling mistakes, cosmetic errors, or interface gaps, but also to point out any bugs in the application that will result in system crashes or major errors in the application.

By performing acceptance tests on an application, the testing team will reduce how the application will perform in production. There are also legal and contractual requirements for acceptance of the system.

Alpha Testing

This test is the first stage of testing and will be performed amongst the teams (developer and QA teams). Unit testing, integration testing and system testing when combined together is known as alpha testing. During this phase, the following aspects will be tested in the application −

  • Spelling Mistakes
  • Broken Links
  • Cloudy Directions
  • The Application will be tested on machines with the lowest specification to test loading times and any latency problems.

Beta Testing

This test is performed after alpha testing has been successfully performed. In beta testing, a sample of the intended audience tests the application. Beta testing is also known as pre-release testing. Beta test versions of software are ideally distributed to a wide audience on the Web, partly to give the program a “real-world” test and partly to provide a preview of the next release.

In this phase, the audience will be testing the following −

  • Users will install, run the application and send their feedback to the project team.
  • Typographical errors, confusing application flow, and even crashes.
  • Getting the feedback, the project team can fix the problems before releasing the software to the actual users.  The more issues you fix that solve real user problems, the higher the quality of your application will be.
  • Having a higher-quality application when you release it to the general public will increase customer satisfaction.

Non-Functional Testing

This section is based upon testing an application from its non-functional attributes. Nonfunctional testing involves testing a software from the requirements which are nonfunctional in nature but important such as performance, security, user interface, etc.

Some of the important and commonly used non-functional testing types are discussed below.

Performance Testing

It is mostly used to identify any bottlenecks or performance issues rather than finding bugs in a software. There are different causes that contribute in lowering the performance of a software −

  • Network delay
  • Client-side processing
  • Database transaction processing
  • Load balancing between servers
  • Data rendering

Performance testing is considered as one of the important and mandatory testing type in terms of the following aspects −

  • Speed (i.e. Response Time, data rendering and accessing)
  • Capacity
  • Stability
  • Scalability

Performance testing can be either qualitative or quantitative and can be divided into different sub-types such as Load testing and Stress testing.

Load Testing

It is a process of testing the behavior of a software by applying maximum load in terms of software accessing and manipulating large input data. It can be done at both normal and peak load conditions. This type of testing identifies the maximum capacity of software and its behavior at peak time.

Most of the time, load testing is performed with the help of automated tools such as Load Runner, AppLoader, IBM Rational Performance Tester, Apache JMeter, Silk Performer, Visual Studio Load Test, etc.

Virtual users (VUsers) are defined in the automated testing tool and the script is executed to verify the load testing for the software. The number of users can be increased or decreased concurrently or incrementally based upon the requirements.

Stress Testing

Stress testing includes testing the behavior of a software under abnormal conditions. For example, it may include taking away some resources or applying a load beyond the actual load limit.

The aim of stress testing is to test the software by applying the load to the system and taking over the resources used by the software to identify the breaking point. This testing can be performed by testing different scenarios such as −

  • Shutdown or restart of network ports randomly
  • Turning the database on or off
  • Running different processes that consume resources such as CPU, memory, server, etc.

Usability Testing

Usability testing is a black-box technique and is used to identify any error(s) and improvements in the software by observing the users through their usage and operation.

According to Nielsen, usability can be defined in terms of five factors, i.e. efficiency of use, learn-ability, memory-ability, errors/safety, and satisfaction. According to him, the usability of a product will be good and the system is usable if it possesses the above factors.

Nigel Bevan and Macleod considered that usability is the quality requirement that can be measured as the outcome of interactions with a computer system. This requirement can be fulfilled and the end-user will be satisfied if the intended goals are achieved effectively with the use of proper resources.

Molich in 2000 stated that a user-friendly system should fulfill the following five goals, i.e., easy to Learn, easy to remember, efficient to use, satisfactory to use, and easy to understand.

In addition to the different definitions of usability, there are some standards and quality models and methods that define usability in the form of attributes and sub-attributes such as ISO-9126, ISO-9241-11, ISO-13407, and IEEE std.610.12, etc.

UI vs Usability Testing

UI testing involves testing the Graphical User Interface of the Software. UI testing ensures that the GUI functions according to the requirements and tested in terms of color, alignment, size, and other properties.

On the other hand, usability testing ensures a good and user-friendly GUI that can be easily handled. UI testing can be considered as a sub-part of usability testing.

Security Testing

Security testing involves testing a software in order to identify any flaws and gaps from security and vulnerability point of view. Listed below are the main aspects that security testing should ensure −

  • Confidentiality
  • Integrity
  • Authentication
  • Availability
  • Authorization
  • Non-repudiation
  • Software is secure against known and unknown vulnerabilities
  • Software data is secure
  • Software is according to all security regulations
  • Input checking and validation
  • SQL insertion attacks
  • Injection flaws
  • Session management issues
  • Cross-site scripting attacks
  • Buffer overflows vulnerabilities
  • Directory traversal attacks

Portability Testing         

Portability testing includes testing a software with the aim to ensure its reusability and that it can be moved from another software as well. Following are the strategies that can be used for portability testing −

  • Transferring an installed software from one computer to another.
  • Building executable (.exe) to run the software on different platforms.

Portability testing can be considered as one of the sub-parts of system testing, as this testing type includes overall testing of a software with respect to its usage over different environments. Computer hardware, operating systems, and browsers are the major focus of portability testing. Some of the pre-conditions for portability testing are as follows −

  • Software should be designed and coded, keeping in mind the portability requirements.
  • Unit testing has been performed on the associated components.
  • Integration testing has been performed.  Test environment has been established.

Software Testing – Documentation

Testing documentation involves the documentation of artifacts that should be developed before or during the testing of Software.

Documentation for software testing helps in estimating the testing effort required, test coverage, requirement tracking/tracing, etc. This section describes some of the commonly used documented artifacts related to software testing such as −

  • Test Plan
  • Test Scenario
  • Test Case
  • Traceability Matrix

Test Plan

A test plan outlines the strategy that will be used to test an application, the resources that will be used, the test environment in which testing will be performed, and the limitations of the testing and the schedule of testing activities. Typically the Quality Assurance Team Lead will be responsible for writing a Test Plan.

A test plan includes the following −

  • Introduction to the Test Plan document
  • Assumptions while testing the application
  • List of test cases included in testing the application
  • List of features to be tested
  • What sort of approach to use while testing the software
  • List of deliverables that need to be tested
  • The resources allocated for testing the application
  • Any risks involved during the testing process
  • A schedule of tasks and milestones to be achieved

Test Scenario

It is a one line statement that notifies what area in the application will be tested. Test scenarios are used to ensure that all process flows are tested from end to end. A particular area of an application can have as little as one test scenario to a few hundred scenarios depending on the magnitude and complexity of the application.

The terms ‘test scenario’ and ‘test cases’ are used interchangeably, however a test scenario has several steps, whereas a test case has a single step. Viewed from this perspective, test scenarios are test cases, but they include several test cases and the sequence that they should be executed. Apart from this, each test is dependent on the output from the previous test.

Test Case        

Test cases involve a set of steps, conditions, and inputs that can be used while performing testing tasks. The main intent of this activity is to ensure whether a software passes or fails in terms of its functionality and other aspects. There are many types of test cases such as functional, negative, error, logical test cases, physical test cases, UI test cases, etc.

Furthermore, test cases are written to keep track of the testing coverage of a software. Generally, there are no formal templates that can be used during test case writing. However, the following components are always available and included in every test case −

  • Test case ID
  • Product module
  • Product version
  • Revision history
  • Purpose
  • Assumptions
  • Pre-conditions
  • Steps
  • Expected outcome
  • Actual outcome
  • Post-conditions

Many test cases can be derived from a single test scenario. In addition, sometimes multiple test cases are written for single software which is collectively known as test suites.

Traceability Matrix

Traceability Matrix (also known as Requirement Traceability Matrix – RTM) is a table that is used to trace the requirements during the Software Development Life Cycle. It can be used for forward tracing (i.e. from Requirements to Design or Coding) or backward (i.e. from Coding to Requirements). There are many user-defined templates for RTM.

Each requirement in the RTM document is linked with its associated test case so that testing can be done as per the mentioned requirements. Furthermore, Bug ID is also included and linked with its associated requirements and test case. The main goals for this matrix are −

  • Make sure the software is developed as per the mentioned requirements.
  • Helps in finding the root cause of any bug.
  • Helps in tracing the developed documents during different phases of SDLC.

What is Basis Path Testing?

  • Basis path testing is a white-box testing technique first proposed by Tom McCabe[MCC76].
  • The basis path method enables the test case designer to derive a logical complexity measure of a procedural design
  • use this measure as a guide for defining a basis set of execution paths.
  • Test cases derived to exercise the basis set are guaranteed to execute every statement in the program at least one time during testing.

Example:

Function fn_delete_element (int value, int array_size, int array[]) { int i;                location = array_size + 1;    for i = 1 to array_size if ( array[i] == value )  4 location = i;             end if;                 end for;   for i = location to array_size array[i] = array[i+1];                end for; array_size –; } 

Steps to Calculate the independent paths

Step 1 : Draw the Flow Graph of the Function/Program under consideration as shown below:

Step 2 : Determine the independent paths.

Path 1:  1 – 2 – 5 – 7 

Path 2:  1 – 2 – 5 – 6 -5-7 

Path 3:  1 – 2 – 3 – 2 – 5 – 6 -5-7 Path 4:  1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 2 – 5 – 6 -5-7

What is Cyclomatic Complexity?

Cyclomatic complexity is a source code complexity measurement that is being correlated to a number of coding errors. It is calculated by developing a Control Flow Graph of the code that measures the number of linearly-independent paths through a program module.

Lower the Program’s cyclomatic complexity, lower the risk to modify and easier to understand. It can be represented using the below formula:

Cyclomatic complexity = E – N + 2 where,

  E = number of edges in the flow graph.

  N = number of nodes in the flow graph.

Example :

IF A = 10 THEN   IF B > C THEN     A = B  ELSE    A = C  ENDIF ENDIF

Print A

Print B

Print C

FlowGraph:

The Cyclomatic complexity is calculated using the above control flow diagram that shows seven nodes(shapes) and eight edges (lines), hence the cyclomatic complexity is 8 – 7 + 2 = 3

Chapter 6:  Software Testing with example Process

Chapter-5: Cost Estimation Tutorial in Software Engineering

Cost Estimation Tutorial

Cost is s strategic concept in software development for the following reasons:

  1. Project management: Estimating cost is extremely crucial in carrying out project management activities such as scheduling, planning and control.
    1. Feasibility Study: Making investment decisions regarding software projects requires full cost breakdown and analysis .Consequently, identified recurring and one-time  costs are then incorporated in a financial feasibility study in terms of cost-benefit analysis.
    1. Cost reduction: Since software engineering aims to provide cost-effective software solutions to business problems, many process and project related activities are designed or re-engineered to achieve the goal of cost minimization.
    1. Evaluating business performance: Cost is an essential ingredient to calculate many of the financial ratios – explained above- uses to evaluate the financial performance for business firm
    1. Leverage: Cost plays a significant role in both e the operating and the financial leverage in respect of risk and return. Relying on fixed costs as opposed to variable costs can boost the operating leverage while financing with high percentage on debt- based costs may boost the financial leverage.

Cost Estimation

Every year more projects are doomed by poor cost and schedule estimates than by technical, political or organizational problems. It‘s no wonder that so few companies realize that software cost estimating can be a science, not just an art. It has been proven that it is quite applicable to accurately and consistently predict development life cycle costs and schedules for a broad array of software projects.

Though a vast body of knowledge exists today in respect to cost estimation techniques, most of these estimation techniques view cost as a function of complexity whether explicitly or implicitly. In early models, complexity means the project size or the program volume, which can be estimated merely via kilo lines of codes KSLOC. In late models, complexity is determined firstly by inputs, outputs, interfaces, files and queries that the software system needs. Then this complexity is further adjusted via up to 14 different added-complexity factors. Eventually, the final result is converted, through a standard conversion table to KLOC.

In basic cost estimation model the calculation is straightforward. By determining the value of only two variables, total efforts in person-months can be easily calculated. These two variables are :

  • How many thousands of lines of code (KSLOC) your programmers must develop?
  • The effort required per KSLOC (i.e.: Linear Productivity Factor)

Accordingly, multiplying these two variables together will result in the person months of effort required for the project provided that the project is relatively small. Otherwise, another exponential size penalty factor has to be incorporated for larger project sizes. Person-months implies the number of months required to complete the entire project if only one person was to carry out this mission. This underlying concept is the foundation of all of the software cost estimating models especially those originated from Barry Boehm‘s famous COCOMO models.

COCOMO Sample Example

Suppose it is required to build a Web Development system consisting of 25,000 lines of code. How many person months of effort would this take using just this equation if:

  1. The project size was relatively small
  2. The project size was considered large

Answer:

  1. For a relatively small project:

Efforts = Productivity x KSLOC

                                =     3.3 x 25 = 82.5 Person-Months

  • For a large project :

Efforts = Productivity x KSLOCPenalty

= 3.3 x 251.030 = 90.86 Person-Months

It should be  noted , however . that COCOMO formulas   have also different  modes , models and versions up to COCOMOII and the new COCOTS.

Estimating software costs typically involves the following drivers:

  1. Complexity of the software project
  2. Size of the software project 3- Efforts needed to complete the project 4- Time needed to complete the project

5- Risks and uncertainties involved .Yet , the risk driver is still not clearly incorporated in the majority of cost estimation models for software systems .

Despite of several differences, most cost estimation models are more or less based on the following rule:

Complexity € size

(Complexity determines software size in terms of KLOC)

Size € efforts

(KLOC determines efforts in person-months with a given level of productivity and exponential size penalty factor)

Efforts € time

(Effort determines time at a given mode and/or model )

Time € Number of people required

(Time determines people ―well-trained full time software development team‖)

Four standard conversion tables are widely adopted in cost estimation. These tables are shown below.  

Table 1. Common Values for the Linear Productivity Factor

Project TypeLinear Productivity Factor
COCOMO II Default2.94
Embedded Development2.58
E-commerce Development3.60
Web Development3.30
Military Development2.77

Table 2. Typical Size Penalty Factors for Various Project Types

Project TypeExponential Size Penalty Factor
COCOMO II Default1.052
Embedded development1.110
E-Commerce development1.030
Web development1.030
Military development1.072

Table 4. Lines of Code Per Function Point by Programming Language

Function Points Estimations

An alternative to direct KSLOC estimating is through function points, then use a the above standard table called ―Lines of Code Per Function Point by Programming Language” to convert them to KSLOC. Function points was used for the first time by IBM to capture the complexity of the software system in terms of its SRS functionality and the way it interacts with its users.

How Function Points Work?

  1. Estimate the number of external inputs, external interface files, external outputs, external queries and logical internal tables (files).
  2. Use the Function Point Conversion Factor table to get total initial function points .
  3. Initial function points are adjusted via 14 complexity factors to obtain final (adjusted) function points.
  • Use adjusted function points to obtain KSLOC.
  • Use KSLOC to estimate efforts as explained in COCOMO examples above

FP Sample Example

Suppose the requirement specification for the Blood Bank Website Development of the blood bank project has been carefully analyzed and the following estimates have been obtained. There is a need for 11 inputs, 11 outputs, 7 inquiries, 22 files, and 6 external interfaces. Also, assume outputs, queries , files function point attributes are of low complexity and all other function points attributes are of medium complexity.

The complexity adjustment value for factor is significant which is 4.  

Make the following calculations showing the full procedure in details:

  1. What is the FUNCTION POINTS (FP) for the blood bank project
  2. What is the ADJUSTED FUNCTION POINTS (AFP) for the blood bank project? 
  3. 3- What is the approximate number of LOC in the following languages:
    1. “C++” programming language
    1. “Java” Programming language
  4. Calculate the estimated schedule time in person-months assuming that Java is used as the implementation language

Answer

1- Calculating Function Points

FUNCTION POINTS ESTIMATION (1) 
DESCRIPTIONLOWMEDIUMHIGHTOTAL
INPUTSX311X4X644
OUTPUTS11X4X5X744
QUERIES7X3X4X621
FILES22X7X10X15154
PROGRAM INTERFACESX56X7X1042
Total Unadjusted Function Points305

2- Calculating Adjusted Function Points

FUNCTION POINT ESTIMATION (3) 
PROCESSING COMPLEXITY(PC):04
ADJUSTED PROCESSING COMPLEXITY (PCA)0.65+(0.01 *04)= 0.69
TOTAL ADJUSTED FUNCTION POINTS305 * .69 = 210.45
  • Approximate number of LOC for the following languages:
  • “C++” programming language :

LOC = 210.45 x 53 = 11153.85 ~ 11.15 KSLOC

  • “Java” Programming language

LOC = 210.45 x 46 = 9680.7 ~ 9.68 KSLOC

  • Estimated efforts calculation

Efforts = Productivity x KSLOCPenalty = 3.3 x 9.68.030 = 3.532 Person-Months